ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. The healthcare provider is providing medication education to a patient who has been prescribed lithium to stabilize mood. Which early signs and symptoms of toxicity should the healthcare provider stress to the patient? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Increased attentiveness
- B. Getting up at night to urinate
- C. Improved vision
- D. An upset stomach for no apparent reason
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Early signs of lithium toxicity include gastrointestinal upset, tremors, increased urination, and increased thirst. Improved vision is not a typical early sign of lithium toxicity and should be ruled out as a symptom to watch for.
2. Which intervention should the nurse implement when caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Monitor the patient's vital signs frequently.
- B. Keep the patient distracted with group-oriented activities.
- C. Provide the patient with frequent milkshakes and protein drinks.
- D. Reduce the volume on the television and dim bright lights in the environment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior, it is crucial to monitor vital signs frequently to ensure the patient's physical health is stable. Providing nutrition, such as milkshakes and protein drinks, is essential to meet the patient's dietary needs. Diminishing environmental stimuli by reducing the volume on the television and dimming bright lights can help create a calmer environment. However, keeping the patient distracted with group-oriented activities may not be the most appropriate intervention as it could potentially exacerbate the manic behavior by overstimulating the patient. Therefore, this choice is the one that doesn't apply in managing manic behavior effectively.
3. Which of the following statements should a healthcare provider recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select all that apply.
- A. They are employed when there is a threat to biological or psychological integrity.
- B. They are controlled by the id and deal with primal urges.
- C. They are used in an effort to increase anxiety.
- D. They are protective devices for the superego.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego, not the id or superego, in response to threats to biological or psychological integrity. They aim to relieve anxiety, not increase it. By redirecting focus, they help manage mild to moderate anxiety and are often self-deceptive in nature.
4. When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits flat affect and social withdrawal, these symptoms are classified as:
- A. Positive symptoms
- B. Negative symptoms
- C. Cognitive symptoms
- D. Mood symptoms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Flat affect and social withdrawal are characteristic of negative symptoms in schizophrenia. Negative symptoms involve disruptions to normal emotions and behaviors, such as reduced emotional expression (flat affect) and social withdrawal. These symptoms reflect a decrease or absence of normal functions. Positive symptoms, on the other hand, involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or experiences, such as hallucinations and delusions, which are added to a person’s experiences. Cognitive symptoms relate to difficulties with thinking, memory, and processing information, impacting cognition. Mood symptoms involve disturbances in mood regulation, which is distinct from the flat affect seen in negative symptoms.
5. During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the nurse be monitoring? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Auditory
- B. Visual
- C. Written
- D. Tactile
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an admission assessment and interview, nurses should monitor auditory, visual, and tactile channels of communication. Written communication is not typically monitored during a face-to-face interview or assessment, making it the correct choice that doesn't apply in this scenario.
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