Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

2. When caring for a client with Alzheimer's disease, what is the most appropriate communication technique for a nurse to use?

• A. Providing detailed explanations
• B. Speaking in a loud and clear voice
• C. Using simple and direct statements
• D. Offering multiple choices to the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When communicating with clients with Alzheimer's disease, using simple and direct statements is the most appropriate technique. This approach helps to minimize confusion, enhance understanding, and facilitate effective communication with individuals who may have difficulty processing complex information due to their condition.

3. A client with a tracheostomy is being cared for by a nurse. The client's partner has been taught to perform suctioning. Which of the following actions by the partner should indicate to the nurse a readiness for the client's discharge?

• A. Attending a class on tracheostomy care
• B. Verbally explaining all steps in the procedure
• C. Performing the procedure independently
• D. Asking relevant questions about suctioning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the partner can independently perform the suctioning procedure, it demonstrates a readiness for the client's discharge. This indicates that the partner has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge to provide safe care for the client at home without the direct supervision of healthcare professionals.

4. A patient is assessing a client who has just been admitted to the emergency department. The client is having difficulty breathing and is using accessory muscles. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Assess the client's vital signs including oxygen saturation.
• C. Notify the Rapid Response Team immediately.
• D. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the client in a high Fowler's position is the best action in this situation as it helps to maximize lung expansion, improve breathing, and decrease the work of breathing. This position allows for better chest expansion, improving oxygenation and ventilation for the client in respiratory distress.

5. Prior to a thoracentesis, what intervention should the nurse complete?

• A. Measure oxygen saturation before and after the procedure.
• B. Verify that the client has given informed consent.
• C. Explain the procedure briefly to the client and their family.
• D. Ensure informed consent has been obtained from the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before a thoracentesis procedure, it is crucial to ensure that the client has given informed consent. This process involves explaining the procedure, its risks, benefits, and alternatives to the client, and obtaining their signature on the consent form. Verifying informed consent is a vital legal and ethical step to protect the client's autonomy and ensure they have made an informed decision about the procedure.

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