ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has COPD. The nurse should expect the client's chest to be which of the following shapes?
- A. Pigeon
- B. Funnel
- C. Kyphotic
- D. Barrel
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
3. A client has a tracheostomy that is 3 days old. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client's face is puffy, and the eyelids are swollen. What action by the nurse takes priority?
- A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
- B. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
- C. Oxygenate the client with a bag-valve-mask.
- D. Palpate the skin of the upper chest.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client may have subcutaneous emphysema, where air leaks into the tissues surrounding the tracheostomy. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and other indicators of oxygenation to ensure adequate oxygen supply. If the client is stable, the nurse can then proceed to palpate the skin of the upper chest to check for subcutaneous emphysema. If the client is unstable, the nurse should promptly notify the Rapid Response Team. Using a bag-valve-mask device may be necessary for oxygenating the client, but assessing oxygen saturation comes first to guide further interventions.
4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?
- A. Carvedilol
- B. Fluticasone
- C. Captopril
- D. Isosorbide dinitrate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.
5. The trauma unit nurse has received a report on a client who has multiple injuries following a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?
- A. Evaluate chest expansion.
- B. Check pupillary response to light.
- C. Assess the capillary refill.
- D. Check the client's response to questions about place and time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with multiple injuries following a motor vehicle crash, the priority is to assess for any compromised airway or breathing. Evaluating chest expansion helps the nurse determine if the client is having any difficulty breathing, which is essential for immediate intervention to maintain adequate oxygenation. Checking pupillary response, assessing capillary refill, and checking the client's orientation to place and time are important assessments but are of lower priority compared to ensuring the client's airway and breathing are intact.
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