Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

2. When performing tracheostomy care, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Use aseptic technique.
• B. Clean the inner cannula with mild soap and water.
• C. Secure new tracheostomy ties before removing old ones.
• D. Apply suction when inserting the catheter.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, it is essential to ensure that the airway is maintained and secured at all times. Securing new tracheostomy ties before removing the old ones helps prevent accidental decannulation and ensures continuous airway patency. Aseptic technique is crucial to prevent infections but is not directly related to securing the tracheostomy ties. Cleaning the inner cannula with mild soap and water is important for maintaining hygiene but does not address the immediate need for securing the airway. Applying suction when inserting the catheter is not a standard practice during tracheostomy care.

3. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

4. A student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select one that does not apply)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease, as they can be changed or controlled through interventions. Age, on the other hand, is a nonmodifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be altered. Understanding the difference between modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors is essential in preventive healthcare strategies.

5. A client with asthma is being taught about peak flow meter use. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use my peak flow meter every morning.
• B. I will use my peak flow meter when I feel short of breath.
• C. I will use my peak flow meter before using my inhaler.
• D. I will use my peak flow meter after using my inhaler.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the peak flow meter every morning is crucial for monitoring asthma control and making timely treatment adjustments. While using the meter when feeling short of breath or before using an inhaler can also be beneficial, the daily morning routine helps in consistent management of asthma symptoms.

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