ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
2. A client with a mediastinal chest tube is being assessed by a nurse. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (SATA)
- A. Production of pink sputum
- B. Tracheal deviation
- C. Pain at insertion site
- D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Immediate intervention is necessary when a client with a mediastinal chest tube exhibits tracheal deviation since it may indicate a tension pneumothorax. This condition requires prompt attention to prevent serious complications. While the production of pink sputum and pain at the insertion site should be monitored and reported, they do not typically require immediate intervention. Sudden onset of shortness of breath could indicate various issues related to the chest tube but is not as critical as tracheal deviation in this context.
3. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?
- A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
- B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
- C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
- D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.
4. A nurse in the PACU is assessing a client who has an endotracheal tube (ET) in place and observes the absence of left-sided chest wall expansion upon respiration. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
- A. Blockage of the ET tube by the client's tongue
- B. Passage of the ET tube into the esophagus
- C. Movement of the ET tube into the right main bronchus
- D. Infection of the vocal cords
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the nurse observes the absence of left-sided chest wall expansion upon respiration, it indicates that the endotracheal tube (ET) may have migrated into the right main bronchus, leading to uneven chest expansion. This can result in inadequate ventilation to the left lung, causing respiratory compromise. The other options, such as blockage of the ET tube by the client's tongue, passage of the ET tube into the esophagus, and infection of the vocal cords, do not directly explain the observed chest wall asymmetry and respiratory distress.
5. During an admission assessment of a client with COPD and emphysema complaining of a frequent productive cough and shortness of breath, what assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Respiratory alkalosis
- B. Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest
- C. Oxygen saturation level 96%
- D. Petechiae on chest
Correct answer: B
Rationale: COPD and emphysema are chronic respiratory conditions that can lead to changes in the shape of the chest. In clients with COPD, the anteroposterior diameter of the chest often increases, giving a barrel chest appearance. This change in chest shape is due to hyperinflation of the lungs and is a common physical finding in clients with COPD and emphysema. The other options are not typically associated with COPD and emphysema. Respiratory alkalosis is not a common finding in these clients. An oxygen saturation level of 96% is within the normal range and does not specifically relate to COPD. Petechiae on the chest are not typically associated with COPD or emphysema.
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