ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
2. The provider requests the nurse to start an infusion of an inotropic agent on a client. How should the nurse explain the action of these drugs to the client and spouse?
- A. It constricts vessels, improving blood flow.
- B. It dilates vessels, which lessens the work of the heart.
- C. It increases the force of the heart's contractions.
- D. It slows the heart rate down for better filling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An inotropic agent is a medication that increases the force of the heart's contractions, which helps improve cardiac output. Choice A and B are incorrect as inotropic agents do not constrict or dilate vessels. Choice D is also incorrect as inotropic agents do not slow down the heart rate but rather enhance the heart's contractility.
3. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Decrease the heparin rate.
- B. Increase the heparin rate.
- C. No change to the heparin rate.
- D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.
4. When a client develops an airway obstruction from a foreign body but remains conscious, which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Insert an oral airway
- B. Administer the abdominal thrust maneuver
- C. Turn the client to the side
- D. Perform a blind finger sweep
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client develops an airway obstruction and remains conscious, the nurse's initial action should be to administer the abdominal thrust maneuver. This technique, also known as the Heimlich maneuver, can help dislodge the obstructing object and clear the airway. Inserting an oral airway, turning the client to the side, or performing a blind finger sweep are not recommended as the first interventions for a conscious individual with an airway obstruction.
5. A client is postoperative following an intermaxillary fixation due to multiple facial fractures. Which type of equipment should be at the client's bedside?
- A. Wire cutters
- B. NG tube
- C. Urinary catheter tray
- D. IV infusion pump
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client who has undergone intermaxillary fixation for facial fractures, wire cutters are essential equipment to have at the bedside in case of emergencies such as airway compromise. These wire cutters allow prompt removal of the wires securing the jaw if needed to ensure adequate airway patency. NG tube, urinary catheter tray, and IV infusion pump are important pieces of equipment in various clinical scenarios but are not specifically required for managing intermaxillary fixation postoperatively.
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