Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

2. While caring for a client who was injured in a motor-vehicle crash and reports dyspnea and severe pain, a nurse in the emergency department notes that the client's chest moves inward during inspiration and bulges out during expiration. The nurse should identify this finding as which of the following?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Flail chest
• C. Hemothorax
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest movement, where the chest moves inward during inspiration and bulges out during expiration. This occurs due to multiple rib fractures causing a segment of the chest wall to move independently from the rest of the thorax. Atelectasis refers to collapsed lung tissue, hemothorax is blood in the pleural space, and pneumothorax is air in the pleural space. In this scenario, the client's presentation aligns with the characteristic findings of flail chest.

3. A client has a pulmonary embolism & is started on oxygen. The student nurse asks why the client's oxygen saturation has not significantly improved. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. Breathing so rapidly interferes with oxygenation.
• B. Maybe the client has respiratory distress syndrome.
• C. The blood clot interferes with perfusion in the lungs.
• D. The client needs immediate intubation & mechanical ventilation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A large blood clot in the lungs will significantly impair gas exchange & oxygenation. Unless the clot is dissolved, this process will continue unabated.

4. A client with asthma is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Polyuria
• D. Oral candidiasis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fluticasone is a corticosteroid often used to manage asthma. One of the common adverse effects associated with inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone is oral candidiasis, also known as thrush. This fungal infection can develop in the mouth and throat due to the steroid's local immunosuppressive effects. Patients should be advised to rinse their mouths after using inhaled corticosteroids to reduce the risk of oral candidiasis. Monitoring for symptoms such as white patches, sore throat, or difficulty swallowing is essential to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

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