Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

2. A healthcare provider collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the healthcare provider include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. I ensured the client did not use bronchodilator medication within the specified timeframe.
• B. The client is prepared to undergo the examination in radiology.
• C. Physical therapy has approved the client for treadmill exercise.
• D. I instructed the client not to smoke for the required duration before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For accurate pulmonary function tests (PFTs), it is essential to communicate that the client did not use bronchodilators within the specified timeframe, did not smoke for the required duration before the test, and can comply with different breathing maneuvers. The use of a treadmill is not part of the PFT procedure and is unrelated to the testing process. Therefore, communicating about the client's ability to run on a treadmill is not relevant to the pulmonary function tests being conducted by the respiratory therapist.

3. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
• B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
• C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
• D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to admit a client to the PACU who received a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent. Which of the following items should the provider place at the client's bedside?

• A. Bag valve mask device
• B. Defibrillator machine
• C. Chest tube equipment
• D. Central venous catheter tray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client receives a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent, it can lead to respiratory muscle paralysis. Placing a bag valve mask device at the client's bedside is crucial for providing immediate respiratory support in case of respiratory depression or failure. This device allows manual ventilation by squeezing the bag to deliver breaths to the client. The other options, such as a defibrillator machine, chest tube equipment, and central venous catheter tray, are not directly related to managing respiratory complications associated with neuromuscular blockade.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has postoperative atelectasis and is hypoxic. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Bradypnea
• C. Lethargy
• D. Intercostal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Postoperative atelectasis can lead to hypoxia, which causes respiratory distress. Intercostal retractions, where the muscles between the ribs pull inward during inspiration, are a common sign of respiratory distress in a client with atelectasis. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), Bradypnea (slow breathing rate), and lethargy are not typically associated with atelectasis and hypoxia.

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