Nursing Elites

1. In caring for a client who received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and presents with a pulse rate of 98/min and blood pressure of 74/44 mm Hg, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?

• A. Calcium gluconate
• B. Sodium bicarbonate
• C. Potassium chloride
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing severe hypotension due to Verapamil administration. The appropriate medication to counteract the vasodilation caused by Verapamil and reverse severe hypotension is Calcium gluconate, which should be administered slowly IV. Therefore, the correct choice is Calcium gluconate (Choice A). Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not indicated for hypotension related to Verapamil use. Potassium chloride (Choice C) and Magnesium sulfate (Choice D) are not the appropriate medications to address the hypotension in this situation.

2. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

• A. Swelling of the ankles.
• B. Increased urination.
• C. Persistent cough.
• D. Dark-colored urine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

3. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should be identified as a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Asthma
• B. Diabetes mellitus
• C. Hypertension
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication due to the potential for worsening bronchoconstriction and exacerbating respiratory symptoms. Choice B, diabetes mellitus, is not a contraindication for Propranolol. Choice C, hypertension, is actually an indication for Propranolol as it is commonly used to treat hypertension. Choice D, glaucoma, is not a contraindication for Propranolol use.

4. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take this medication with milk.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take this medication before bedtime.
• D. Take this medication with antacids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take this medication on an empty stomach.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach. Instruct the client to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to maximize absorption and avoid interactions with food or beverages that may decrease absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking Ferrous sulfate with milk can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to taking it before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of Ferrous sulfate.

5. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?

• A. “Angina usually resolves with rest, and is rarely fatal, while a myocardial infarction necessitates immediate treatment and can be life-threatening.”
• B. “There is a clear distinction between the two. You will receive treatment based on the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.”
• C. “Both conditions result from a clot obstructing the coronary arteries. Angina occurs with the blockage of a small vessel, whereas a myocardial infarction occurs with a blockage of a large vessel.”
• D. “Angina may not cause as intense chest pain, whereas a myocardial infarction always presents with severe chest pain.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.

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