Nursing Elites

1. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

2. A nurse in an emergency room is caring for a client who sustained partial-thickness burns to both lower legs, chest, face, and both forearms. Which of the following is the priority action the nurse should take?

• A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• B. Inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries.
• C. Administer intravenous pain medication.
• D. Draw blood for a complete blood cell (CBC) count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with burns, especially burns to the face and chest, the priority action for the nurse is to inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries. Inhalation injuries can be life-threatening and may not be immediately apparent. Identifying these injuries early allows for prompt intervention and can significantly impact the client's outcomes. While other actions such as pain management and blood tests are important, assessing for inhalation injuries takes precedence due to its critical nature.

3. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

4. A nurse is caring for four hospitalized clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being at risk for fluid volume deficit?

• A. The client who has been NPO since midnight for endoscopy
• B. The client who has left-sided heart failure and has a brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 600 pg/mL
• C. The client who has end-stage renal failure and is scheduled for dialysis today
• D. The client who has gastroenteritis and is febrile

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gastroenteritis can lead to fluid loss through vomiting and diarrhea, especially when accompanied by fever. Fever can increase insensible water loss through sweating as well. Both vomiting and diarrhea can significantly contribute to fluid volume deficit, making the client with gastroenteritis and fever at higher risk compared to the other clients described in the options.

5. The provider requests the nurse to start an infusion of an inotropic agent on a client. How should the nurse explain the action of these drugs to the client and spouse?

• A. It constricts vessels, improving blood flow.
• B. It dilates vessels, which lessens the work of the heart.
• C. It increases the force of the heart's contractions.
• D. It slows the heart rate down for better filling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An inotropic agent is a medication that increases the force of the heart's contractions, which helps improve cardiac output. Choice A and B are incorrect as inotropic agents do not constrict or dilate vessels. Choice D is also incorrect as inotropic agents do not slow down the heart rate but rather enhance the heart's contractility.

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