Nursing Elites

1. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

2. A client with a spinal cord injury at T6 suddenly reports a pounding headache and blurred vision. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer pain medication as ordered.
• B. Check the client's blood pressure.
• C. Place the client in a supine position.
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of a pounding headache and blurred vision are indicative of autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. The nurse's priority action should be to check the client's blood pressure as autonomic dysreflexia can lead to severe hypertension. Identifying and addressing this elevated blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications such as seizures, stroke, or even death. Once the blood pressure is assessed and managed, further interventions can be implemented to address the underlying cause of autonomic dysreflexia.

3. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts about 3-5 minutes
• D. Relieved by taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pain of an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. It typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI occurs without a known cause such as exertion.

4. A client is postoperative following an intermaxillary fixation due to multiple facial fractures. Which type of equipment should be at the client's bedside?

• A. Wire cutters
• B. NG tube
• C. Urinary catheter tray
• D. IV infusion pump

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client who has undergone intermaxillary fixation for facial fractures, wire cutters are essential equipment to have at the bedside in case of emergencies such as airway compromise. These wire cutters allow prompt removal of the wires securing the jaw if needed to ensure adequate airway patency. NG tube, urinary catheter tray, and IV infusion pump are important pieces of equipment in various clinical scenarios but are not specifically required for managing intermaxillary fixation postoperatively.

5. A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pneumonia often leads to the consolidation of lung tissue, resulting in dullness on percussion. This occurs due to the presence of fluid or inflammatory material in the alveoli. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more indicative of conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, where there is an increase in the density of the pleural space or air in the pleural cavity. Hyperresonance, on the other hand, is typically associated with conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema, where there is increased air in the alveoli.

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