Nursing Elites

1. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

2. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of a client on a ventilator, the nurse notices an increase in the client's heart rate from 86/min to 110/min, with irregularity. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Obtain a cardiology consult.
• B. Suction the client less frequently.
• C. Administer an antidysrhythmic medication.
• D. Perform pre-oxygenation prior to suctioning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client's heart rate increases and becomes irregular during suctioning of an endotracheal tube, it indicates potential hypoxemia. Performing pre-oxygenation before suctioning helps prevent hypoxemia and subsequent dysrhythmias. This intervention ensures that the client has adequate oxygen reserves before the procedure, reducing the risk of complications related to suctioning.

3. After a thoracentesis, a healthcare provider assesses a client. Which assessment finding warrants immediate action?

• A. The client rates pain as 5/10 at the site of the procedure.
• B. A small amount of drainage is noted from the site.
• C. Pulse oximetry reads 93% on 2 liters of oxygen.
• D. The trachea is deviated toward the opposite side of the neck.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A deviated trachea indicates a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency. This condition can rapidly lead to respiratory failure and requires immediate intervention. The other assessment findings, such as pain level, mild drainage, and slightly decreased oxygen saturation, are within an expected range after a thoracentesis and do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding does the nurse expect?

• A. Increased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight gain
• D. Productive cough with yellow sputum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with COPD commonly develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. A decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings in COPD. Instead, COPD patients often present with an increased respiratory rate, weight loss, and a chronic cough with sputum production.

5. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is taking isoniazid (INH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid exposure to sunlight while taking this medication.
• C. Report any numbness or tingling in extremities.
• D. Have liver function tests done regularly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial for clients taking isoniazid (INH) due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid can cause liver damage, and early detection through routine liver function tests can help prevent severe complications.

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