Nursing Elites

1. A client is 4 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client's blood pressure has dropped from 120/80 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• B. Check the surgical site for bleeding.
• C. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the surgical site for bleeding is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the drop in blood pressure is due to hemorrhage, a potential postoperative complication. Identifying and addressing bleeding promptly is essential to prevent further complications and stabilize the client's condition.

2. A client is 1-day postoperative following a left lower lobectomy and has a chest tube in place. When assessing the client's three-chamber drainage system, the nurse notes that there is no bubbling in the suction control chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Continue to monitor the client as this is an expected finding.
• B. Add more water to the suction control chamber of the drainage system.
• C. Verify that the suction regulator is on and check the tubing for leaks.
• D. Milk the chest tube and dislodge any clots in the tubing that are occluding it.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a three-chamber chest drainage system, the absence of bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates that no suction is being applied to the chest tube. The nurse should first verify that the suction regulator is on and check the tubing for any leaks that may be causing the lack of suction. Adding more water to the chamber or milking the chest tube are inappropriate actions and could potentially harm the client. Monitoring the client without taking action could lead to complications if the chest tube is not functioning properly.

3. A client in the late stage of inhalation anthrax requires a plan of care. What is appropriate to include in the plan of care?

• A. Provide respiratory support.
• B. Place the client in droplet isolation.
• C. Administer antihypertensive medications.
• D. Monitor ascites.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the late stage of inhalation anthrax, respiratory support is crucial due to the potential for respiratory failure. Providing oxygen therapy and maintaining airway patency are essential components of care to improve oxygenation and support respiratory function. Placing the client in droplet isolation is not necessary as inhalation anthrax is not transmitted from person to person through respiratory droplets. Administering antihypertensive medications is not indicated in the treatment of inhalation anthrax. Monitoring for ascites is not a priority in the late stage of inhalation anthrax.

4. A client with asthma is assessed by a nurse and presents with bilateral wheezing, decreased pulse oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction on inhalation. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer prescribed albuterol (Ventolin) inhaler.
• B. Assess the client for tracheal deviation.
• C. Administer oxygen to maintain saturations greater than 94%.
• D. Perform peak expiratory flow measurements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suprasternal retraction during inhalation indicates the use of accessory muscles and difficulty in moving air due to airway narrowing, supported by bilateral wheezing and decreased pulse oxygen saturation. This client needs immediate intervention as their asthma is not responding to the medication. Administering oxygen to maintain saturations above 94% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. While administering a rescue inhaler could also be necessary, oxygen therapy takes priority in this situation.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

• A. Carvedilol
• B. Fluticasone
• C. Captopril
• D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.

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