a nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery the clients blood pressure has dropped from 12080 mm hg to 9060
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam

1. A client is 4 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client's blood pressure has dropped from 120/80 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the surgical site for bleeding is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the drop in blood pressure is due to hemorrhage, a potential postoperative complication. Identifying and addressing bleeding promptly is essential to prevent further complications and stabilize the client's condition.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.

3. A nurse is observing the closed chest drainage system of a client who is 24 hr post thoracotomy. The nurse notes slow, steady bubbling in the suction control chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a closed chest drainage system, slow, steady bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding, indicating proper functioning of the system. There is no immediate need for intervention as this indicates the system is working as intended. The nurse should continue to monitor the client's respiratory status for any signs of distress or changes. Checking tubing connections for leaks or clamping the chest tube are unnecessary actions based on the information provided. Checking the suction control outlet on the wall is also not indicated in this scenario.

4. A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of anthrax exposure, the recommended antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is effective against the anthrax bacterium, Bacillus anthracis. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication, Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used for bacterial infections, and Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic primarily used for Gram-positive bacterial infections. Therefore, the correct choice is Ciprofloxacin.

5. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of asthma, the priority is to administer a short-acting beta2-agonist like Albuterol (Proventil) first. Albuterol acts quickly to dilate the airways and provide immediate relief of bronchospasm. Ipratropium (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic that can be used as an adjunct therapy. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting beta2-agonist intended for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid used for long-term asthma control and should not be the initial medication given during an acute exacerbation.

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