Nursing Elites

1. A client is 4 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client's blood pressure has dropped from 120/80 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• B. Check the surgical site for bleeding.
• C. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the surgical site for bleeding is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the drop in blood pressure is due to hemorrhage, a potential postoperative complication. Identifying and addressing bleeding promptly is essential to prevent further complications and stabilize the client's condition.

2. When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who will start using fluticasone via MDI twice daily, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your heart rate before each dose.
• B. Inspect your mouth for lesions daily.
• C. Do not use this medication to relieve an acute attack.
• D. Do not skip the morning dose even if symptom-free.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is crucial for clients using inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone to inspect their mouths daily for signs of oral thrush, a common side effect. Checking the mouth can help identify lesions early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent worsening of the condition. Monitoring heart rate is not specifically required for this medication. Fluticasone is a maintenance medication used to manage COPD, not to relieve acute attacks. Skipping doses, especially in the morning, can lead to inadequate control of COPD symptoms.

3. During an acute asthma attack in a client with asthma, what medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Oral corticosteroids
• B. Short-acting beta agonist
• C. Leukotriene receptor antagonist
• D. Long-acting beta agonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Short-acting beta agonists, like albuterol, are the first-line medications as they rapidly relax bronchial muscles, providing immediate relief. Oral corticosteroids are used as adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation over time, while leukotriene receptor antagonists and long-acting beta agonists are not appropriate for immediate relief during an acute attack.

4. During an assessment, an older adult client's son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Night sweats
• C. Confusion
• D. Narrowed pulse pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confusion is a common manifestation of pneumonia in older adults. It can result from inadequate oxygenation to the brain due to respiratory compromise. Bradycardia, night sweats, and narrowed pulse pressure are not typically specific findings associated with pneumonia and should be further assessed or monitored, but confusion is a key indicator that warrants immediate attention.

5. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts less than 15 minutes
• D. No relief from taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Additionally, it can occur without a known cause, unlike stable angina which often has a trigger such as exertion.

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