Nursing Elites

1. When administering Amitriptyline to a client experiencing cancer pain, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Decreased appetite
• B. Explosive diarrhea
• C. Decreased pulse rate
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Orthostatic hypotension.' When administering Amitriptyline, the nurse should monitor for orthostatic hypotension. This condition can occur due to the drug's anticholinergic effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up. Symptoms may include dizziness, lightheadedness, and an increased risk of falls. Monitoring for signs of orthostatic hypotension is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as decreased appetite, explosive diarrhea, and decreased pulse rate are not typically associated with the administration of Amitriptyline.

2. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine. During the operation, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and their body temperature begins to rise. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Neostigmine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Vecuronium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are manifestations of malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and treat malignant hyperthermia effectively. Neostigmine (choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, not to treat malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and is not used to treat malignant hyperthermia.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Document that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction to the medication.
• B. Change the IV infusion site.
• C. Decrease the infusion rate on the IV.
• D. Apply cold compresses to the neck area.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flushing and tachycardia are signs of Red Man Syndrome, which can be mitigated by decreasing the infusion rate.

4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metronidazole. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to avoid which of the following?

• A. Dairy products
• B. Alcohol
• C. Leafy green vegetables
• D. Grapefruit juice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alcohol. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole due to the risk of a disulfiram-like reaction. This reaction can cause symptoms like flushing, headache, nausea, and vomiting when alcohol is consumed while on metronidazole. Dairy products, leafy green vegetables, and grapefruit juice do not have significant interactions with metronidazole. Dairy products do not interfere with metronidazole absorption; leafy green vegetables are safe to consume as they do not affect metronidazole metabolism, and grapefruit juice is not contraindicated with metronidazole.

5. What is the therapeutic use of metformin?

• A. Lower blood pressure
• B. Diminish seizure activity
• C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose levels
• D. Increase heart rate and decrease gastrointestinal secretions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Metformin is commonly prescribed to manage and control blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes. It helps in reducing the amount of glucose produced by the liver and improves the body's response to insulin, thereby aiding in the regulation of blood sugar levels. It is not used to lower blood pressure, diminish seizure activity, increase heart rate, or decrease gastrointestinal secretions.

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