ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Massage the injection site after administration.
- B. Aspirate before injecting the medication.
- C. Administer the medication into the abdomen.
- D. Administer the medication via intramuscular injection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the medication into the abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that is administered subcutaneously, typically in the abdomen to ensure proper absorption. Massaging the injection site should be avoided as it can lead to bruising or bleeding under the skin. Aspirating before injecting the medication is not necessary for subcutaneous injections like Enoxaparin. Administering the medication via intramuscular injection is incorrect as Enoxaparin should be given subcutaneously.
2. Why is it important to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors?
- A. To assess for renal impairment
- B. To ensure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake
- C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure
- D. To assess for NSAID use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is crucial to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors to assess for renal impairment. ACE inhibitors can affect renal function, potentially leading to renal impairment. Monitoring the patient's fluid balance helps in early recognition of any renal issues and allows for timely interventions to prevent complications.
3. Which of the following drugs is associated with hepatitis as a reaction?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hepatitis is a known side effect of isoniazid. It is important to monitor patients on isoniazid for signs of liver damage, including hepatitis, as part of their treatment regimen for tuberculosis.
4. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.
5. A client is starting therapy with rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fever
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever when starting rituximab therapy. Fever can be a sign of infection, which is a potential complication associated with rituximab. Early detection and treatment of infections are important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not commonly associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication's side effects. Therefore, fever is the most crucial symptom to report to healthcare providers.
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