ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Massage the injection site after administration.
- B. Aspirate before injecting the medication.
- C. Administer the medication into the abdomen.
- D. Administer the medication via intramuscular injection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the medication into the abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that is administered subcutaneously, typically in the abdomen to ensure proper absorption. Massaging the injection site should be avoided as it can lead to bruising or bleeding under the skin. Aspirating before injecting the medication is not necessary for subcutaneous injections like Enoxaparin. Administering the medication via intramuscular injection is incorrect as Enoxaparin should be given subcutaneously.
2. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?
- A. I am frequently constipated.
- B. I have been urinating more frequently.
- C. My skin is peeling.
- D. I have ringing in my ears.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am frequently constipated.' Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down intestinal motility, leading to constipation as a side effect. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with adverse effects of Verapamil. Increased urination is not a common side effect, skin peeling is not related to Verapamil use, and ringing in the ears is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
3. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug isoflurane?
- A. Elevated lipid levels
- B. Nausea
- C. Increased blood flow to the brain
- D. Decreased respiratory function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Isoflurane is not known to cause elevated lipid levels. Common effects of isoflurane include nausea, increased blood flow to the brain, and decreased respiratory function. Elevated lipid levels are not typically associated with the administration of isoflurane, making choice A the correct answer.
4. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Cardiac dysrhythmia
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Renal failure
- D. Aplastic anemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.
5. A client has been prescribed an ACE Inhibitor for hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Avoid salt substitutes.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- D. Limit your fluid intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid salt substitutes.' ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of ACE Inhibitors. Choice B 'Take this medication at bedtime' is incorrect as ACE Inhibitors are usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturnal diuresis. Choice C 'Avoid foods high in potassium' is incorrect because although ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, clients are generally encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods in moderation unless contraindicated. Choice D 'Limit your fluid intake' is also incorrect as ACE Inhibitors do not typically require fluid restrictions unless specified by a healthcare provider for other reasons.
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