Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the albuterol at the same time each day.
• B. Administer the albuterol inhaler prior to using the beclomethasone inhaler.
• C. Use beclomethasone if experiencing an acute episode.
• D. Avoid shaking the beclomethasone before use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2-agonist, such as albuterol, and an inhaled glucocorticoid, such as beclomethasone, for asthma control, the beta2-agonist should be administered first. This sequence is important because the beta2-agonist promotes bronchodilation, which enhances the absorption and effectiveness of the glucocorticoid. Instructing the client to administer the albuterol inhaler before using the beclomethasone inhaler ensures optimal therapeutic benefit. Therefore, option B is the correct choice. Option A is incorrect because the timing of albuterol administration may vary based on the prescribed regimen. Option C is incorrect because beclomethasone is a controller medication, not a rescue medication, and should not be used during acute episodes. Option D is incorrect because beclomethasone should be shaken before use to ensure proper dispersion of the medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.

3. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.

4. A healthcare provider in a clinic is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
• B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L
• D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, particularly in older clients taking Digoxin. Hypokalemia potentiates the effects of Digoxin, making the heart more sensitive to its toxic effects. Monitoring and correcting electrolyte imbalances, especially low potassium levels, are crucial to prevent adverse effects of digoxin therapy. Calcium levels do not directly influence digoxin toxicity, so choices A and B are incorrect. High potassium levels, as in choice D, are less likely to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity compared to low potassium levels.

5. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid.
• B. Avoid drinking coffee while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Stop the medication if you develop a headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ranitidine is to take the medication at bedtime. Ranitidine is best taken at night to reduce nighttime stomach acid production, providing optimal relief for conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and ulcers.

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