a nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm which of the following actio
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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.

2. A client is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take for a client at risk for developing DVT is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation and reducing the risk of DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of DVT due to immobility. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and is contraindicated in DVT prevention. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed (Choice D) is a treatment for DVT, it is not a preventive measure for a client at risk.

3. Which medication is commonly prescribed for a patient with hypertension?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed to patients with hypertension to manage their blood pressure. Metformin is used to treat type 2 diabetes, not hypertension (choice B). Atorvastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels, not primarily prescribed for hypertension (choice C). Aspirin is used for its antiplatelet effects and in preventing cardiovascular events, but it is not a first-line treatment for hypertension (choice D). Therefore, Lisinopril is the most suitable choice for a patient with hypertension.

4. What is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering diuretics is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to remove excess fluid from the body by increasing urine output, thus reducing the fluid volume in the bloodstream and tissues. Providing oral fluids (choice B) or increasing fluid intake (choice C) would exacerbate the fluid overload rather than managing it. Chest physiotherapy (choice D) is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure; it is more commonly used for conditions affecting the lungs or airways.

5. The healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of a vein, which increases the risk of blood clots. The use of oral contraceptives further elevates the risk of clot formation, making them contraindicated in individuals with thrombophlebitis. Hyperthyroidism (Choice A), diverticulosis (Choice C), and hypocalcemia (Choice D) are not contraindications to the use of oral contraceptives.

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