ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Increase the oxytocin infusion.
- B. Maintain the oxytocin infusion.
- C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
- D. Provide reassurance to the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds, this pattern indicates hyperstimulation, which can be harmful to the fetus. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is essential to prevent further harm. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, maintaining it would continue the risk, and providing reassurance to the client, although important, does not address the need for immediate action to ensure the safety of the fetus.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Client reports taking warfarin
- B. Client has a history of hypertension
- C. Client ate a light breakfast 2 hours prior
- D. Client reports a history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is crucial for the provider to be informed about the client taking warfarin to adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical to report for surgical planning. A history of hypertension (B) is important but may not require immediate intervention for surgery. Eating a light breakfast 2 hours prior (C) is a normal preoperative instruction. Smoking history (D) is relevant for overall health assessment but is not as urgent as the use of warfarin before surgery.
3. A nurse is preparing discharge information for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which resource should the nurse provide?
- A. Personal blogs about managing diabetes medications.
- B. Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association.
- C. Diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference.
- D. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association. Food exchange lists provide structured meal planning for individuals with diabetes, helping them make healthier food choices and manage their condition effectively. Choice A is incorrect because personal blogs may not provide accurate and reliable information on managing diabetes and medications. Choice C is incorrect as diabetes medication information may not be directly related to meal planning and dietary management. Choice D is incorrect because food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine may not specifically cater to the dietary needs and meal planning guidelines recommended for individuals with diabetes.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?
- A. Bilirubin.
- B. Albumin.
- C. Ammonia.
- D. Prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.
5. A client in end-stage osteoporosis is reporting severe pain, with a respiratory rate of 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be the highest priority to administer to the client?
- A. Promethazine
- B. Hydromorphone
- C. Ketorolac
- D. Amitriptyline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with severe pain like the one described, the priority medication to administer is a potent analgesic like hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is a strong opioid pain medication that can effectively manage severe pain. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not a pain medication. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is contraindicated in end-stage renal disease due to its potential to cause kidney damage. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.
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