ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Increase the oxytocin infusion.
- B. Maintain the oxytocin infusion.
- C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
- D. Provide reassurance to the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds, this pattern indicates hyperstimulation, which can be harmful to the fetus. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is essential to prevent further harm. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, maintaining it would continue the risk, and providing reassurance to the client, although important, does not address the need for immediate action to ensure the safety of the fetus.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Polyuria is the excessive production of urine and is a common finding in clients with hyperglycemia due to increased glucose levels. High blood sugar levels lead to the body trying to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, resulting in increased urination. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) is excessive sweating and is not a direct symptom of hyperglycemia. Tachycardia (choice D) is increased heart rate and is not a primary finding in hyperglycemia.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased bleeding tendencies. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to preventing infections in immunocompromised clients. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically targeted at managing thrombocytopenia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
- A. First-degree AV block.
- B. Premature ventricular contraction.
- C. Sinus bradycardia.
- D. Atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
- D. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber can indicate an air leak, which compromises the integrity of the chest tube system and should be reported to the provider for immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding indicating that the system is working appropriately. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation of fluid level with inspiration and expiration, indicating that the system is functioning correctly. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours is within the expected range for chest tube drainage and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
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