Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glucose 180 mg/dL
• B. Sodium 136 mEq/L
• C. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
• D. Albumin 3.5 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Glucose 180 mg/dL." Elevated glucose levels in a client receiving TPN may indicate hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is essential to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns related to TPN administration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• B. Heart rate of 90/min
• C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A urine output of 30 mL/hr is significantly low and indicates possible renal impairment or inadequate perfusion to the kidneys, which are critical for postoperative recovery. In this situation, decreased urine output could lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, affecting the client's overall condition. The nurse should report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a normal finding in the early postoperative period and does not typically warrant immediate concern. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range and may be expected in a postoperative client due to the stress response. A temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in isolation postoperatively.

3. A client who is taking phenytoin is being taught about contraceptive options. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. You should use a backup method of birth control while taking phenytoin.
• B. Phenytoin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
• C. You should stop taking phenytoin while using oral contraceptives.
• D. Phenytoin can increase the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Phenytoin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so it is important to inform the client about this interaction. Using an additional form of contraception, such as a backup method, is recommended to ensure adequate protection against pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because it lacks specificity about the decrease in effectiveness of oral contraceptives caused by phenytoin. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests stopping phenytoin use while using oral contraceptives, which is not the appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as phenytoin is known to decrease, not increase, the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

4. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the transfusion immediately.
• B. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
• C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• D. Increase the transfusion rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever, the priority action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion immediately. A fever during a blood transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction, and stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Administering an antihistamine (choice B) or a diuretic (choice C) without assessing and addressing the potential transfusion reaction can be harmful. Increasing the transfusion rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate any adverse reactions the client is experiencing.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
• B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
• C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
• D. Client reports dyspnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

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