a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following findings should the nurse r
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Glucose 180 mg/dL." Elevated glucose levels in a client receiving TPN may indicate hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is essential to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns related to TPN administration.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, a side effect of methotrexate, and should be reported. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate potential complications related to methotrexate therapy.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

4. A client with Parkinson's disease is receiving physical therapy. Which statement by the client indicates the need for a referral to physical therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because freezing of feet while walking is a sign of impaired mobility, indicating the need for physical therapy in clients with Parkinson's disease. Choices A, B, and D are symptoms commonly associated with Parkinson's disease but do not specifically indicate the need for immediate referral to physical therapy.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing the client with a stool softener is essential to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could result in bleeding for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is unrelated to the management of thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers (choice B) is more relevant for clients with a compromised immune system. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent foodborne illnesses, but it is not directly related to thrombocytopenia.

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