ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?
- A. Varicella vaccine
- B. Rubella vaccine
- C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
- D. Measles vaccine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the inactivated influenza vaccine. During pregnancy, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend the inactivated influenza vaccine as safe for pregnant individuals. This vaccination is crucial to protect both the pregnant person and their developing baby from influenza-related complications. It is essential to avoid live vaccines, such as varicella (chickenpox), rubella, and measles vaccines during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of harm to the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because live vaccines are generally contraindicated during pregnancy.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer Belimumab to a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?
- A. Warm the medication to room temperature before administering.
- B. Administer the medication by IV bolus over 5 minutes.
- C. Dilute the medication in a 5% dextrose and water solution.
- D. Monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring the client for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial when administering Belimumab due to its known potential for severe infusion reactions and anaphylaxis. The healthcare provider should closely observe the client during the administration to promptly identify and manage any hypersensitivity reactions that may occur. Choice A is incorrect because warming Belimumab is not necessary before administration. Choice B is incorrect as Belimumab should not be administered as an IV bolus over 5 minutes; it should be given as an IV infusion over a longer duration. Choice C is incorrect as Belimumab should not be diluted in a 5% dextrose and water solution.
3. What is the correct medical term used to describe impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries?
- A. Myocardial infarction
- B. Angina pectoris
- C. Cerebrovascular accident
- D. Coronary heart disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct medical term for impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries is Coronary heart disease. This condition is characterized by a narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Myocardial infarction (choice A) refers to a heart attack, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the heart is blocked. Angina pectoris (choice B) is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Cerebrovascular accident (choice C) is the medical term for a stroke, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the brain is interrupted.
4. A client with OCD has a new prescription for Paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. It can take several weeks before you feel like the medication is helping.
- B. Take the medication just before bedtime to promote sleep.
- C. You should take the medication when needed for obsessive urges.
- D. Monitor for weight gain while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Paroxetine, an antidepressant commonly used for OCD, typically takes 1 to 4 weeks before the client experiences the full therapeutic benefit. Therefore, informing the client that it may take several weeks before feeling the medication's effects is crucial to manage expectations and ensure compliance with the treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because Paroxetine is usually taken in the morning due to its activating effects and may cause insomnia if taken before bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because Paroxetine should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing obsessive urges. Choice D is incorrect because although weight gain can be a side effect of Paroxetine, it is not a priority instruction compared to the delayed onset of therapeutic effects.
5. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?
- A. Cefaclor
- B. Cefazolin
- C. Cefepime
- D. Cephalexin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.
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