a nurse in a providers office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit which of the following i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the inactivated influenza vaccine. During pregnancy, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend the inactivated influenza vaccine as safe for pregnant individuals. This vaccination is crucial to protect both the pregnant person and their developing baby from influenza-related complications. It is essential to avoid live vaccines, such as varicella (chickenpox), rubella, and measles vaccines during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of harm to the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because live vaccines are generally contraindicated during pregnancy.

2. When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, the nurse should infuse the medication over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects such as renal damage. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the recommended infusion rate to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect as stool softeners are not indicated in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because fluid intake should be maintained or increased to prevent dehydration and support kidney function. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for hypotension is not specifically related to the administration of IV Acyclovir in Varicella.

3. A client has a prescription for Nitroglycerin, and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Nitroglycerin is to take one tablet at the onset of chest pain, then repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses. Option A is incorrect because taking a tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved may lead to delayed intervention. Option C is incorrect as taking Nitroglycerin at bedtime is not indicated for chest pain. Option D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually at the onset of chest pain, not on an empty stomach.

4. When providing teaching to a client with a prescription for Phenytoin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brush and floss your teeth regularly.' Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that affects the gums. It is crucial for the client to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent oral health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While the timing of medication administration and dietary considerations are important, they are not directly related to preventing the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia caused by Phenytoin.

5. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

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