a nurse in a providers office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit which of the following i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the inactivated influenza vaccine. During pregnancy, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend the inactivated influenza vaccine as safe for pregnant individuals. This vaccination is crucial to protect both the pregnant person and their developing baby from influenza-related complications. It is essential to avoid live vaccines, such as varicella (chickenpox), rubella, and measles vaccines during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of harm to the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because live vaccines are generally contraindicated during pregnancy.

2. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes this cough as an adverse effect. It is important for the client to monitor for this symptom and notify their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated adverse effects of Lisinopril.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining help from another healthcare professional to confirm the correct client and blood product is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction during a blood transfusion. This reaction occurs due to ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product reduces the risk of administering the wrong blood type, which could lead to a life-threatening reaction. Checking for patency of the IV line (Choice A) is important but does not directly prevent an acute hemolytic reaction. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is essential for detecting transfusion reactions but does not prevent them. Staying with the client (Choice D) is important for early recognition of adverse reactions but does not address the root cause of preventing an acute hemolytic reaction.

4. A client has a new prescription for Nitrofurantoin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nitrofurantoin should be taken with food to enhance absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Taking it with a meal or a snack can help minimize stomach upset. Instructing the client to take the medication with food ensures optimal effectiveness and tolerability of the drug. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between Nitrofurantoin and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as there is no requirement to take Nitrofurantoin at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing vitamin C intake is not necessary or relevant to taking Nitrofurantoin.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously at a 45- to 90-degree angle. This angle ensures proper delivery of the medication. Massaging the injection site should be avoided to prevent bruising and possible tissue damage. Aspiration is not required for subcutaneous injections like Enoxaparin. Therefore, the correct action for administering Enoxaparin is to insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle.

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