a nurse is caring for a client who has hiv and is beginning therapy with zidovudine the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following ad
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.

2. A client is prescribed Amitriptyline for depression. What should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Changing positions slowly can help prevent orthostatic hypotension, a common adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressants like Amitriptyline. It is essential to educate the client to avoid sudden position changes to minimize the risk of dizziness and falls. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. The therapeutic effects of Amitriptyline may not be noticeable for 1-3 weeks, so expecting them in 24 to 48 hours (choice A) is unrealistic. Discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be done gradually under healthcare provider supervision, so choice B is incorrect. Amitriptyline can actually cause constipation, so increasing dietary fiber intake would be recommended to prevent constipation, making choice D incorrect.

3. A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Labetalol. Abrupt discontinuation of beta-blockers like Labetalol can lead to rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. It is important for clients to taper off the medication under healthcare provider guidance to prevent potential complications.

4. When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, which of the following pharmacokinetic principles should be considered? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, the pharmacokinetic principle to consider is that infants have immature liver function until 1 year of age. This requires medications metabolized by the liver to be administered in smaller dosages. While infants do have a more rapid gastric emptying time, immature liver function is a more critical pharmacokinetic consideration in this context. Additionally, although infants have a poorly developed blood-brain barrier, this relates more to pharmacodynamic effects rather than pharmacokinetic principles. The statement about infants having an increased ability to absorb topical medications is not directly related to pharmacokinetic principles, making choice B the correct answer.

5. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Escitalopram to treat generalized anxiety disorder. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing Escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms, so it is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions for gradual discontinuation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Escitalopram should not necessarily be taken with food, there is no direct correlation with blood sugar levels, and the medication should not be crushed before swallowing.

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