a nurse is caring for a client who has hiv and is beginning therapy with zidovudine the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following ad
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.

2. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

3. A school-age child has a new prescription for Atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Liver damage is an adverse effect of Atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor for manifestations such as jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, darkening of urine, and elevated liver enzymes. It is crucial to be vigilant for signs of liver damage to ensure early detection and intervention to prevent further complications. Kidney toxicity is not a common adverse effect of Atomoxetine. Seizure activity and adrenal insufficiency are also not typically associated with this medication.

4. A healthcare provider in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a characteristic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is typically accompanied by other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. The acute rise in intraocular pressure leads to these symptoms, indicating a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more suggestive of conditions like age-related macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg is within the normal range and not indicative of the acute rise seen in angle-closure glaucoma.

5. A client with OCD has a new prescription for Paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Paroxetine, an antidepressant commonly used for OCD, typically takes 1 to 4 weeks before the client experiences the full therapeutic benefit. Therefore, informing the client that it may take several weeks before feeling the medication's effects is crucial to manage expectations and ensure compliance with the treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because Paroxetine is usually taken in the morning due to its activating effects and may cause insomnia if taken before bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because Paroxetine should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing obsessive urges. Choice D is incorrect because although weight gain can be a side effect of Paroxetine, it is not a priority instruction compared to the delayed onset of therapeutic effects.

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