a nurse is caring for a client who has hiv and is beginning therapy with zidovudine the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following ad
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare provider should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are prescribed Furosemide. While monitoring other electrolytes like sodium and magnesium may also be important in certain situations, the priority for a client prescribed Furosemide is to monitor serum potassium levels due to the risk of hypokalemia.

3. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.

4. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine. During the operation, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and their body temperature begins to rise. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are manifestations of malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and treat malignant hyperthermia effectively. Neostigmine (choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, not to treat malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and is not used to treat malignant hyperthermia.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking aspirin while on Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin and other NSAIDs can further potentiate this risk, so they should be avoided while taking Clopidogrel to reduce the chance of bleeding complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. There is no specific instruction to take Clopidogrel with food or at bedtime. Avoiding foods high in potassium is not directly related to Clopidogrel use.

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