Nursing Elites

1. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ringing in the ears
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.

2. A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?

• A. Prone
• B. On the nonoperative side
• C. Sims'
• D. Semi-Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.

3. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Take the medication with breakfast.
• B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
• C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure.
• D. Limit sodium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase intake of foods high in potassium.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion. The healthcare professional should instruct the client to increase the intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide therapy. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Choice C is unrelated to the side effects of Furosemide. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to the side effects of Furosemide.

4. Which drug class has been found to decrease mortality if given within 8 hours of an MI due to a decrease in cardiac workload?

• A. Antiplatelets
• B. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• C. ACE inhibitors
• D. Calcium channel blockers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Beta-adrenergic blockers have been shown to decrease mortality when administered within 8 hours of a myocardial infarction (MI). They do so by reducing cardiac workload, which helps improve outcomes post-MI. These drugs work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, leading to decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand, thereby protecting the heart muscle from further damage. This makes them a crucial part of the treatment regimen for acute coronary syndromes like MI.

5. Which medication is a beta blocker?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Verapamil (Calan)
• C. Captopril (Capoten)
• D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.

Similar Questions