ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Ringing in the ears
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.
2. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?
- A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
- B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.
3. What is the correct action when a patient reports cramping during enema administration?
- A. Lower the height of the solution container
- B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
- C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
- D. Continue the enema at a slower rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient reports cramping during enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. Lowering the height reduces the pressure and speed of the solution entering the rectum, alleviating cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can worsen the discomfort. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) is not necessary unless there are severe complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the immediate cramping issue and could still cause discomfort to the patient.
4. What is the initial intervention for a patient with chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Provide pain relief
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a patient with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which can be beneficial in case the chest pain is due to a cardiac event. Administering nitroglycerin may follow aspirin administration to help relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels. Providing pain relief is a general approach and may not address the underlying cause of chest pain. Preparing for surgery would not be the initial intervention for chest pain unless there are specific indications for immediate surgical intervention.
5. A client is in skeletal traction. With the nurse’s assessment, it is noted that the pairs appear red, swollen and there is purulent drainage. What action does the nurse take first?
- A. Collect a culture of the purulent fluid
- B. Cleanse the skin around the pins
- C. Administer an antibiotic
- D. Instruct the client to complete exercise of the affected extremity
Correct answer: Collect a culture of the purulent fluid
Rationale:
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