Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
• B. Heart rate of 68/min.
• C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has major depressive disorder and is taking tranylcypromine. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Milk
• B. Bananas
• C. Yogurt
• D. Cured meats

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cured meats. Cured meats contain tyramine, which can lead to a hypertensive crisis in clients taking tranylcypromine. Bananas, milk, and yogurt do not contain significant amounts of tyramine and are safe for clients taking this medication. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid cured meats to prevent adverse effects.

3. A client receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Nausea
• C. Skin irritation
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During radiation therapy for breast cancer, one common side effect is skin irritation due to the impact of radiation on the skin cells. This side effect should be closely monitored by the nurse. Fatigue may also occur as a side effect of radiation therapy, but skin irritation is more specific to the treatment area and is a priority in this case. Nausea and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Continuous murmur.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?

• A. Positive Trousseau's sign.
• B. Hyperactive reflexes.
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
• D. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.

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