Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL.
• B. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
• C. Heart rate of 110/min.
• D. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 110/min is elevated and may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication following a thyroidectomy. Elevated heart rate can be a sign of hypocalcemia due to the close relationship between calcium levels and cardiac function. Option A, serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL, is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and would not be a cause for concern post-thyroidectomy. Option B, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range for urine output and not typically a priority finding post-thyroidectomy. Option D, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F), is slightly elevated but not a critical finding post-thyroidectomy unless accompanied by other symptoms.

3. What is the best method to assess pain in a non-verbal patient?

• A. Observe for facial expressions
• B. Observe for restlessness
• C. Observe for sweating
• D. Check for non-verbal cues

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe for facial expressions when assessing pain in a non-verbal patient. Facial expressions can provide vital clues about the patient's pain level and discomfort. Choices B and C, observing for restlessness and sweating, can be less specific and may indicate other issues besides pain. Choice D, checking for non-verbal cues, is too broad and does not specify the crucial aspect of focusing on facial expressions.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

5. During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?

• A. A client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min.
• B. A client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy.
• C. A client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis.
• D. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.

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