ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
- A. First-degree AV block.
- B. Premature ventricular contraction.
- C. Sinus bradycardia.
- D. Atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
2. A client has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset.
- C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking this medication.
- D. Chew the medication for faster absorption.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction when taking alendronate is to remain upright for 30 minutes after administration. This helps prevent esophageal irritation, a known side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Option B is incorrect as taking alendronate with food decreases its absorption. Option D is incorrect as alendronate should be swallowed whole with a full glass of water and not chewed.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid overload?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Bounding peripheral pulses
- C. Weight loss
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with chronic heart failure, bounding peripheral pulses are a classic sign of fluid overload. This occurs due to increased volume in the arterial system, causing a forceful pulse. Increased urine output (Choice A) is often seen in clients with fluid volume deficit, not overload. Weight loss (Choice C) is also inconsistent with fluid overload as it suggests a fluid deficit. Decreased heart rate (Choice D) is more commonly associated with conditions like bradycardia, hypothyroidism, or the use of certain medications, but not specifically indicative of fluid overload in chronic heart failure.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
- A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
- B. Position the client on the left side during feedings.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
- D. Check gastric residual every 2 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Chest tube drainage of 60 mL/hr
- B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- C. Chest tube drainage of 120 mL/hr
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest tube drainage of more than 100 mL/hr may indicate active bleeding, which is a serious complication post-thoracotomy surgery. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client 2 hours post-thoracotomy and do not require immediate reporting. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range for an adult.
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