Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
• B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
• C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
• D. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying sequential compression devices is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours is contraindicated as it can dislodge a blood clot and increase the risk of embolism. Administering prophylactic antibiotics is not indicated for preventing DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest can contribute to venous stasis and increase the risk of developing DVT.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Joint pain that improves with rest.
• B. Joint stiffness that improves with movement.
• C. Red, warm joints.
• D. Systemic inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In osteoarthritis, joint pain that improves with rest is a common characteristic due to the relief obtained by reducing weight-bearing on the affected joint. Joint stiffness that improves with movement is more indicative of rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Red, warm joints are typically seen in inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, while systemic inflammation is not a primary feature of osteoarthritis.

4. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

• A. INR 1.5
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
• D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. A client has a new ileostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply a skin barrier around the stoma.
• B. Empty the pouch when it is one-third full.
• C. Change the entire pouching system weekly.
• D. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Changing the entire pouching system weekly is essential for maintaining skin integrity and preventing infection. Option A is incorrect as applying a skin barrier should be done during the pouch change, not separately. Option B is incorrect as ileostomy pouches should be emptied when they are one-third to one-half full to prevent leakage. Option D is incorrect because cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol can be too harsh and may cause skin irritation.

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