Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client supine.
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water.
• C. Administer methylergonovine IM.
• D. Administer calcium gluconate IV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate IV is the correct action when a client displays toxicity from magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it counteracts the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the immediate action needed. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used in postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood pressure continuously
• B. Weigh the client daily
• C. Monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration
• D. Measure the client's intake and output every 2 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the client's intake and output every 2 hours is essential when caring for a client receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Milrinone is a medication that affects fluid balance, and monitoring intake and output helps assess the client's response to the medication. Continuous monitoring of blood pressure may not be necessary unless there is a specific indication. While weighing the client daily is important for overall assessment, measuring intake and output more frequently provides more real-time data for fluid balance evaluation. Monitoring the infusion site is crucial for detecting infiltration but is not directly related to managing fluid balance in this situation.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Insert a tongue depressor into the client's mouth.
• B. Restrain the client's arms and legs.
• C. Turn the client onto their side.
• D. Place the client in a prone position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should turn the client onto their side. This action helps maintain an open airway by allowing saliva or any vomitus to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of aspiration. Inserting a tongue depressor (choice A) is incorrect as it can cause injury to the client's mouth and is not recommended during a seizure. Restraining the client's arms and legs (choice B) can lead to physical harm and should be avoided. Placing the client in a prone position (choice D) is dangerous as it can obstruct the airway and hinder breathing, which is not suitable for a client experiencing a seizure.

5. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Administer 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally.
• D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.

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