Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about preventing long-term complications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will keep my blood glucose levels within the target range.
• B. I will check my feet daily for any open sores or wounds.
• C. I will consume foods that are high in fiber.
• D. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because checking the feet daily for open sores or wounds is crucial in preventing complications like diabetic foot ulcers. While maintaining blood glucose levels within the target range (choice A) is important in managing diabetes, it does not specifically address long-term complications. Consuming foods high in fiber (choice C) is beneficial for glycemic control but does not directly relate to preventing long-term complications. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (choice D) is important in managing diabetes but is not as directly related to preventing long-term complications as checking for foot wounds.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine to a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the insulin via IV push.
• B. Rotate injection sites to prevent tissue damage.
• C. Mix the insulin with regular insulin before administering it.
• D. Administer the insulin at the same time each day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering insulin glargine is to give it at the same time each day. This consistent timing helps maintain stable blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because insulin glargine should not be administered via IV push. Choice B is incorrect as rotating injection sites is typically done for short-acting insulins to prevent lipodystrophy, not for insulin glargine. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine should not be mixed with other insulins before administration.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for potassium chloride. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate 88/min
• C. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Sodium 136 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia. Before administering potassium chloride, which is used to treat low potassium levels, the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and potential adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the need for potassium chloride administration.

5. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT levels
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor INR levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

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