ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
- A. First-degree AV block.
- B. Premature ventricular contraction.
- C. Sinus bradycardia.
- D. Atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has chronic kidney disease. The client's potassium level is 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer sodium bicarbonate
- B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- C. Administer calcium gluconate
- D. Administer calcium carbonate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used to treat hyperkalemia by promoting the excretion of potassium. Choice A, administering sodium bicarbonate, is incorrect as it is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering calcium gluconate, is incorrect as it is used to treat hypocalcemia, not hyperkalemia. Choice D, administering calcium carbonate, is incorrect as it is used to treat conditions like osteoporosis and indigestion, not hyperkalemia.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent catheter-associated infections?
- A. Change the catheter every 24 hours
- B. Ensure the drainage bag is positioned above the bladder
- C. Perform routine irrigation of the catheter
- D. Empty the drainage bag every 4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the drainage bag is positioned above the bladder. This positioning prevents urine reflux into the bladder, reducing the risk of catheter-associated infections. Changing the catheter too frequently (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of infection by introducing pathogens. Performing routine catheter irrigation (Choice C) is no longer recommended as it can increase the risk of infection by introducing bacteria. Emptying the drainage bag every 4 hours (Choice D) is a standard practice to prevent urinary stasis but is not directly related to preventing catheter-associated infections.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?
- A. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
- B. Hemoglobin 8 g/dL
- C. WBC count 15,000/mm3
- D. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate of 88/min
- C. Respiratory rate of 20/min
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated, indicating a possible infection or inflammatory response, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client postoperative, so they do not require immediate reporting. Elevated temperature can be a sign of infection or other complications, making it a priority for reporting and further assessment.
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