ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
- A. First-degree AV block.
- B. Premature ventricular contraction.
- C. Sinus bradycardia.
- D. Atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Use latex gloves when administering the medication.
- B. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
- C. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
- D. Administer the medication with a latex-free syringe.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.
3. When digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall
- B. Apply lubricant and stimulate peristalsis
- C. Apply pressure to the abdomen to assist with the removal
- D. Increase fluid intake before the procedure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma and is the appropriate method for addressing fecal impaction. Choice B is incorrect as stimulating peristalsis will not directly assist in evacuating the impacted stool. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the abdomen is not the recommended method for stool evacuation. Choice D is incorrect as increasing fluid intake does not directly aid in digitally evacuating the stool.
4. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Perform perineal care before the procedure.
- B. Apply sterile gloves before cleansing the perineal area.
- C. Place the client in a supine position.
- D. Lubricate the catheter with alcohol-based gel.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client, the nurse should apply sterile gloves before cleansing the perineal area to prevent infection. Performing perineal care before the procedure is incorrect as it should be done after catheter insertion. Placing the client in a side-lying position is not necessary for this procedure. Lubricating the catheter with petroleum jelly is not recommended as it can damage the catheter; using a water-soluble lubricant is preferred.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
- B. Ammonia 35 mcg/dL
- C. Prothrombin time 16 seconds
- D. Albumin 4 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.
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