a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring the clients heart rate is 69min and the pr interval is 024 seconds what
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.

4. A client with a pulmonary embolism is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering anticoagulants as prescribed is a crucial intervention for clients with pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may dislodge the clot and lead to worsening symptoms. Placing the client in a prone position can compromise respiratory function. Initiating seizure precautions is not directly related to the management of pulmonary embolism.

5. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor the IV site. Potassium can be irritating to the veins and may cause phlebitis or infiltration. Monitoring the IV site allows early detection of any potential complications. Checking urine output (Choice A) is important to assess kidney function but is not directly related to monitoring IV potassium. Blood pressure (Choice B) and respiratory rate (Choice D) are essential vital signs to monitor in general patient care but are not specific to monitoring IV potassium administration.

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