Nursing Elites

1. A client taking haloperidol is exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increase the dose of haloperidol.
• B. Administer benztropine.
• C. Administer naloxone.
• D. Monitor blood pressure before administering the next dose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms while taking haloperidol is to administer benztropine. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms caused by antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice A) would exacerbate the symptoms rather than alleviate them. Administering naloxone (Choice C) is not indicated for extrapyramidal symptoms. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the primary intervention for managing extrapyramidal symptoms.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is receiving radiation therapy for cancer of the larynx. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply heat to the neck to relieve pain.
• B. Use a soft-bristle toothbrush to prevent gum irritation.
• C. Rinse your mouth with an alcohol-free mouthwash twice daily.
• D. Wear loose-fitting clothing to protect your skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a soft-bristle toothbrush to prevent gum irritation in clients undergoing radiation therapy for laryngeal cancer. Radiation therapy can cause oral mucositis and increase the risk of gum irritation, so using a soft-bristle toothbrush is recommended to minimize trauma to the gums and oral mucosa. Applying heat to the neck is contraindicated as it can exacerbate tissue damage caused by radiation. Rinsing the mouth with an alcohol-free mouthwash is preferred over an alcohol-based one to prevent drying and irritation of the oral mucosa. Wearing loose-fitting clothing is advised to prevent friction and irritation on the skin, rather than tight-fitting clothing that may cause pressure ulcers or skin breakdown.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
• D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.

4. A client with schizophrenia is pacing the hall and is agitated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ask the client if they intend to harm others.
• B. Tell the client to stop pacing the hall.
• C. Allow the client to pace alone until they feel less anxious.
• D. Walk with the client at a gradually slower pace.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hall and agitated is to walk with the client at a gradually slower pace. This approach can help reduce the client's agitation and prevent the situation from escalating. Choice A is incorrect because directly asking about harm may increase the client's anxiety. Choice B is inappropriate as it may worsen the client's agitation. Choice C is not recommended as the client may benefit from the nurse's presence and support during this time of distress.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

• A. Instruct the client to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.
• B. Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs).
• C. Place the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs). Following a cholecystectomy, the client is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to reduced mobility and surgical stress. SCDs help prevent VTE by promoting venous return and reducing the risk of blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While deep breathing and coughing exercises are essential postoperatively, SCDs take precedence in preventing VTE. Placing the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat can increase the risk of respiratory complications. Encouraging ambulation is important, but SCDs are a higher priority in this situation to prevent VTE.

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