Nursing Elites

1. A client taking haloperidol is exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increase the dose of haloperidol.
• B. Administer benztropine.
• C. Administer naloxone.
• D. Monitor blood pressure before administering the next dose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms while taking haloperidol is to administer benztropine. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms caused by antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice A) would exacerbate the symptoms rather than alleviate them. Administering naloxone (Choice C) is not indicated for extrapyramidal symptoms. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the primary intervention for managing extrapyramidal symptoms.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Keep the client in a supine position.
• C. Administer lorazepam as prescribed.
• D. Encourage the client to drink fluids with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal is to administer lorazepam as prescribed. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to prevent seizures and manage agitation in clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal. Administering haloperidol (Choice A) is not recommended in alcohol withdrawal as it may lower the seizure threshold. Keeping the client in a supine position (Choice B) is not specifically indicated in managing alcohol withdrawal. Encouraging the client to drink fluids with meals (Choice D) is important for hydration but does not address the acute symptoms of alcohol withdrawal.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. JVD.
• C. Crackles in the lungs.
• D. Hypotension.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: JVD. Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to congestion and increased venous pressure, which is manifested as JVD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. Crackles in the lungs (choice C) are indicative of pulmonary edema, often seen in left-sided heart failure. Hypotension (choice D) is not typically seen in right-sided heart failure, as it is more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration.

4. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
• B. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
• C. A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag.
• D. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with low blood glucose levels needs immediate assessment to ensure stabilization. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening situations that require urgent assessment. Option B can be attended to after addressing the client with low blood glucose levels. Option C can be managed based on the infusion rate and the client's condition. Option D, although important, can be assessed after ensuring the client with low blood glucose levels is stable.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 60 minutes
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level during administration
• C. Infuse the medication rapidly to reduce the risk of infection
• D. Administer the medication using a filter needle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.

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