Nursing Elites

1. A client who is postoperative following a colon resection reports pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assist the client in changing positions in bed
• B. Administer a PRN dose of morphine
• C. Encourage the client to use relaxation techniques
• D. Offer the client a back massage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of morphine is the most appropriate action to manage postoperative pain in a client following a colon resection. Morphine is a potent analgesic commonly used to relieve moderate to severe pain, especially in postoperative settings. While assisting the client to change positions in bed, encouraging relaxation techniques, and offering a back massage can provide comfort and support, they may not be sufficient in managing the pain following a major surgical procedure like a colon resection. Therefore, the priority intervention for acute postoperative pain control in this scenario is to administer medication like morphine.

2. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

• A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
• B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
• B. I should take this medication with food.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands the potential side effect associated with the medication. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is typically taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because a headache is not a common reason to stop taking lisinopril.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
• B. Heart rate of 88/min
• C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine output of 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of dehydration or kidney impairment postoperatively. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and D are within normal parameters for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not raise immediate concerns. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing is an expected finding in the early postoperative period, a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is also within normal limits.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
• B. 1+ pitting edema
• C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.

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