Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
• B. Use of pursed-lip breathing
• C. Productive cough with green sputum
• D. Decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should report to the provider is decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe. This can indicate a respiratory infection or atelectasis in clients with COPD, requiring further evaluation and intervention. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 91%, although slightly lower than normal, does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless the client's baseline is significantly higher. Choice B, the use of pursed-lip breathing, is actually a beneficial technique for clients with COPD to improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath, so it does not need reporting. Choice C, a productive cough with green sputum, can be common in clients with COPD and may indicate an infection, but it is not as concerning as decreased breath sounds in a specific lung lobe which may signify a more acute issue.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Platelet count
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, International normalized ratio (INR). INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the INR helps assess how well the medication is working to prevent blood clots. Choices A, B, and C are not specific indicators for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count evaluates the clotting ability of blood, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. While these values are important for overall health assessment, they do not directly reflect the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication will increase your potassium levels.
• B. You should take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• C. This medication will decrease your blood glucose levels.
• D. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching for a client with a new prescription for furosemide is that the client should take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause gastrointestinal upset, so taking it with food can help reduce this side effect and improve medication tolerance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not increase potassium levels, decrease blood glucose levels, or require an increase in the intake of potassium-rich foods. Therefore, the most important teaching point for the client is to take furosemide with food.

4. A client at risk for osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about dietary measures to increase calcium intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Carrots
• B. Cottage cheese
• C. Bananas
• D. Broccoli

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Broccoli. Broccoli is high in calcium, making it a suitable recommendation for clients at risk for osteoporosis. Carrots, Cottage cheese, and Bananas are not significant sources of calcium compared to broccoli, and therefore, they are not the best choices to increase calcium intake.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a glucose tolerance test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should avoid consuming any food or drink for 8 hours before the test.
• B. You should drink 8 oz of water 1 hour before the test.
• C. You should take an antacid before the test.
• D. You should drink a glass of milk 1 hour before the test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should avoid consuming any food or drink for 8 hours before the glucose tolerance test to ensure accurate results. Choice A is the correct instruction for the client preparing for a glucose tolerance test. Drinking water, taking an antacid, or consuming milk before the test can interfere with the accuracy of the results. Water or any other substance might affect the concentration of glucose in the blood, leading to inaccurate test results. Antacids and milk can also interfere with the test outcome. Therefore, the client should follow the instruction to fast for 8 hours before the test.

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