Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
• B. Use of pursed-lip breathing
• C. Productive cough with green sputum
• D. Decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should report to the provider is decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe. This can indicate a respiratory infection or atelectasis in clients with COPD, requiring further evaluation and intervention. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 91%, although slightly lower than normal, does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless the client's baseline is significantly higher. Choice B, the use of pursed-lip breathing, is actually a beneficial technique for clients with COPD to improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath, so it does not need reporting. Choice C, a productive cough with green sputum, can be common in clients with COPD and may indicate an infection, but it is not as concerning as decreased breath sounds in a specific lung lobe which may signify a more acute issue.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor the client's fluid intake.
• B. Provide the client with a high-protein diet.
• C. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
• D. Administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dehydration is to administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV. This solution helps correct fluid imbalance by providing the necessary electrolytes. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not appropriate for dehydration as the client needs adequate fluids to rehydrate. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice B) is not directly related to correcting dehydration. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice C) is beneficial for overall health but does not address the issue of dehydration directly.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the injection site after administering the medication.
• B. Insert the needle at a 45° angle.
• C. Use a Z-track technique to administer the injection.
• D. Aspirate for blood before injecting the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a Z-track technique to administer the injection.' When administering IM injections, using a Z-track technique helps prevent medication from leaking into subcutaneous tissues. This technique involves pulling the skin laterally, injecting the medication deeply into the muscle, and then releasing the skin. Choice A is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administering the medication can lead to increased blood flow and potential leakage of the medication. Choice B is incorrect as the needle should typically be inserted at a 90° angle for IM injections to ensure proper delivery into the muscle. Choice D is incorrect as aspirating for blood before injecting the medication is not routinely recommended for IM injections.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This insulin has a peak effect of 2 to 4 hours.
• B. This insulin has a duration of action of 24 hours.
• C. This insulin is given before meals to control your blood sugar.
• D. You should avoid eating 30 minutes before or after taking this insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Insulin glargine has a 24-hour duration of action, making it suitable for once-daily dosing for long-term blood sugar control. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect in its action profile. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine is usually given at the same time each day regardless of meals. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before or after taking insulin glargine.

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