Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) may present with which of the following manifestations? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

• A. Severe dyspnea
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure (ARF), the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to respiratory distress. Symptoms of ARF typically include severe dyspnea (difficulty breathing), decreased level of consciousness due to hypoxia, and headache from inadequate oxygenation to the brain. Nausea is not a typical manifestation of ARF and would not be expected in this condition.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?

• A. Hydrops fetalis
• B. Hypobilirubinemia
• C. Biliary atresia
• D. Transient clotting difficulties

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.

3. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with severe gestational hypertension is being admitted by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse NOT expect to implement?

• A. Administer magnesium sulfate IV.
• B. Provide a dark, quiet environment.
• C. Assess respiratory status every 4 hours.
• D. Ensure that calcium gluconate is readily available.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing respiratory status every 4 hours is not a priority for a client with severe gestational hypertension. In this scenario, the focus should be on monitoring blood pressure, assessing for signs of preeclampsia, administering medications like magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis, and ensuring that calcium gluconate is readily available in case of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory status assessment is important in other conditions but is not directly related to managing severe gestational hypertension.

4. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

5. A client is being assessed for postpartum infection. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the client requires further evaluation for endometritis?

• A. Localized area of breast tenderness
• B. Pelvic pain
• C. Vaginal discharge with foul odor
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pelvic pain is a common symptom of endometritis, which is an infection of the uterine lining. It is an important finding that warrants further evaluation. Localized area of breast tenderness may indicate mastitis, vaginal discharge with a foul odor could suggest a vaginal infection, and hematuria points towards a urinary tract issue, but they are not specific to endometritis.

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