a nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values for a client the ph is 732 paco2 48 mm hg and the hco3 is 23 meql the nurse should recognize that t
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ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam

1. When reviewing the arterial blood gas values for a client, a nurse notes a pH of 7.32, PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L. What does this indicate about the acid-base balance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The given values suggest respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the pH is low (<7.35), PaCO2 is high (>45 mm Hg), and the HCO3 is normal or slightly elevated. In this scenario, the low pH (7.32) and high PaCO2 (48 mm Hg) indicate respiratory acidosis, where there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to acidification of the body fluids.

2. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 16/min within the normal range is an essential parameter to monitor when administering magnesium sulfate, as respiratory depression is a potential adverse effect. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, warranting immediate intervention. A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is below the expected amount, suggesting decreased kidney perfusion, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardic and may indicate magnesium toxicity, requiring assessment and possible discontinuation of the infusion.

3. A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.

4. A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa. Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.

5. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9�C (102�F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9�C (102�F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.

Similar Questions

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