Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Lorazepam
• B. Atenolol
• C. Naltrexone
• D. Methadone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct choice for managing acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms due to its effectiveness in controlling agitation and tremors associated with this condition. Atenolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, not for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone (Choice C) is used for alcohol dependence treatment by reducing cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol, but it is not typically used in acute withdrawal situations. Methadone (Choice D) is an opioid agonist mainly used for opioid detoxification and maintenance therapy, not for alcohol withdrawal.

2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid overload in heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Check for edema
• C. Monitor intake and output
• D. Administer diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in managing a patient with fluid overload in heart failure. Weight fluctuations can indicate fluid retention or loss, guiding healthcare professionals in adjusting treatment. While checking for edema (Choice B) and monitoring intake and output (Choice C) are important aspects of patient care, they are not as direct in assessing fluid overload as daily weight monitoring. Administering diuretics (Choice D) is a treatment option based on the assessment of fluid overload, making it a secondary intervention compared to monitoring weight.

3. Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?

• A. INR of 1.1
• B. PT of 12 seconds
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Platelet count of 150,000

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. The test will last about 30 minutes.
• B. You should drink a full glass of water prior to the test.
• C. You will need to have your bladder full for this test.
• D. This test measures how well your baby's heart responds to movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A nonstress test measures the fetal heart's response to movement, helping to assess fetal well-being. Choice A is incorrect as the duration of the test can vary, and it is not always precisely 30 minutes. Choice B is incorrect as drinking water is not necessary for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as having a full bladder is not required for this test.

5. What is the priority intervention for a patient with fluid overload?

• A. Administer diuretics
• B. Administer IV fluids
• C. Provide oral fluids
• D. Provide chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer diuretics. Diuretics help reduce excess fluid in cases of fluid overload, making it the priority intervention. Administering additional IV fluids (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by adding more fluid. Providing oral fluids (choice C) is not the priority as the excess fluid needs to be removed first. Chest physiotherapy (choice D) is not the primary intervention for fluid overload.

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