a nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following interventions should the nurse implement
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying sequential compression devices is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours is contraindicated as it can dislodge a blood clot and increase the risk of embolism. Administering prophylactic antibiotics is not indicated for preventing DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest can contribute to venous stasis and increase the risk of developing DVT.

2. A client is receiving discharge instructions following a stroke. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Avoiding aspirin is crucial for this client as it can increase the risk of bleeding after a stroke. Choice B about consuming dairy products for calcium intake is not directly related to stroke management. Choice C regarding fluid intake is a good practice for overall health but not specifically related to stroke care. Choice D about limiting fiber intake is not typically a concern after a stroke unless there are specific complications that warrant it.

3. What is the primary purpose of administering an antiemetic?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To reduce nausea and vomiting.' Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. While they may indirectly help with appetite by reducing the unpleasant symptoms that can lead to decreased food intake, their primary purpose is not to increase appetite (Choice B). Choice C, 'To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy,' is partly correct as antiemetics are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea, but this is not their exclusive purpose. Choice D, 'To treat allergic reactions,' is incorrect as antiemetics are not primarily used for treating allergic reactions.

4. When caring for a client with asthma experiencing an acute exacerbation, which medication should the nurse administer first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an acute asthma exacerbation, the priority is to quickly relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that acts rapidly to dilate the airways, making it the first-line medication for acute symptom relief. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma control, not for immediate relief. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator used for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that reduces airway inflammation and is also used for long-term control, not for immediate relief during an exacerbation.

5. A client prescribed clozapine is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that decreases the number of white blood cells. Reporting a sore throat is crucial as it could be a sign of infection. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between clozapine and grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect because clozapine is usually taken without regard to meals. Choice D is incorrect as clozapine is generally taken without food to enhance absorption.

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