Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
• B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
• C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
• D. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying sequential compression devices is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours is contraindicated as it can dislodge a blood clot and increase the risk of embolism. Administering prophylactic antibiotics is not indicated for preventing DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest can contribute to venous stasis and increase the risk of developing DVT.

2. What is the best way to manage a patient's pain postoperatively?

• A. Administer analgesics regularly
• B. Administer pain medication PRN
• C. Encourage deep breathing exercises
• D. Provide distraction techniques

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer analgesics regularly. Postoperative pain management often requires a scheduled, around-the-clock administration of analgesics to maintain a consistent level of pain relief and minimize the risk of breakthrough pain. Choice B, administering pain medication PRN (as needed), may lead to inadequate pain control as the medication is not given preemptively. Choice C, encouraging deep breathing exercises, can be beneficial for pain management but should be used as an adjunct to analgesic therapy. Choice D, providing distraction techniques, may help some patients cope with pain but should not be the primary method of pain management postoperatively.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Provide information about stress management.
• B. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
• C. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
• D. Give glucocorticoid steroids twice a day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Raynaud's disease is a condition where the blood vessels narrow in response to cold or stress, leading to reduced blood flow to certain areas of the body, usually the fingers and toes. Stress management helps reduce triggers for Raynaud's disease by minimizing emotional stress, which can trigger vasospasms. Choice B is incorrect as maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, is recommended for individuals with Raynaud's disease to prevent triggering vasospasms. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not typically used to manage Raynaud's disease, as it can further constrict blood vessels. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not a first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.

4. A client in active labor is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
• B. FHR baseline of 170/min.
• C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
• D. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a baseline FHR of 170/min indicates fetal tachycardia, which needs further evaluation. Choice A about contractions lasting 80 seconds is within the normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are generally considered benign and do not require immediate reporting. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), falls within normal limits for a laboring client and does not warrant immediate reporting.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?

• A. Frothy, pink sputum
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Weight gain
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Frothy, pink sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary congestion in left-sided heart failure. This occurs due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to the coughing up of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is more indicative of right-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the systemic circulation. Weight gain (choice C) may occur due to fluid retention, but it is not a direct manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to abnormally slow breathing and is not specifically associated with pulmonary congestion.

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