ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
- B. 1+ pitting edema
- C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.
2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
- B. I will use a raised toilet seat.
- C. I will sleep on my affected side.
- D. I will perform leg exercises every hour while awake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sleeping on the affected side could increase the risk of dislocation following a hip arthroplasty. It is essential for the client to avoid sleeping on the surgical side to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote proper postoperative care and reduce the risk of complications. Avoiding crossing legs when sitting, using a raised toilet seat for proper positioning, and performing leg exercises regularly help in the recovery process and prevent complications.
3. Which of the following is reflected in an ECG due to hypokalemia?
- A. Tall T waves and Pathologic Q wave
- B. Widening QRS Complex and U wave
- C. None of the above
- D. Both A and B
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, is reflected in an ECG by a widening QRS Complex and a U wave. This is because potassium plays a key role in the electrical activity of the heart, and its deficiency can lead to abnormalities in the heart's rhythm as represented by these specific changes on the ECG. Choice A is incorrect as tall T waves and pathologic Q waves are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia or myocardial infarction, respectively, rather than hypokalemia. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the ECG changes caused by hypokalemia.
4. The nurse is preparing to feed a 10-month-old child diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT). Which actions should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Be persistent.
- B. Introduce new foods slowly.
- C. All are correct
- D. Maintain a calm, even temperament.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Persistence in feeding, introducing new foods slowly, and maintaining a calm temperament are key strategies in managing FTT. A stimulating atmosphere may overwhelm the child and should be minimized during feeding times.
5. A healthcare professional is educating clients in an outpatient facility about the use of Insulin to treat type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the professional inform the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration?
- A. Insulin glargine
- B. NPH insulin
- C. Regular insulin
- D. Insulin lispro
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin typically exhibits a peak effect approximately 1 to 5 hours after administration. It is important for clients to be aware of this timing to ensure optimal management of their blood glucose levels. Insulin glargine, NPH insulin, and Insulin lispro have different onset and peak times compared to Regular insulin. Insulin glargine has a slow, steady release with no pronounced peak, NPH insulin peaks around 4 to 12 hours after administration, and Insulin lispro has a rapid onset and a peak effect around 0.5 to 2.5 hours after administration. Therefore, Regular insulin is the correct choice for a peak effect within the specified time frame.
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