Nursing Elites

1. A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Acarbose
• B. Repaglinide
• C. Glyburide
• D. Glipizide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

2. A client who was admitted to the maternity unit at 38 weeks of gestation and who is experiencing polyhydramnios is found to have which of the following?

• A. The client is carrying more than one fetus
• B. There is an elevated level of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid
• C. An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is present
• D. The fetus is likely to have a congenital anomaly, be growth restricted, or demonstrate fetal distress during labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Polyhydramnios refers to the presence of an excessive amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. This condition can result from various causes, such as maternal diabetes, fetal anomalies, or genetic disorders. It can lead to complications during pregnancy and delivery, such as preterm labor, placental abruption, or fetal malpresentation. Understanding this diagnosis is crucial for providing appropriate care and monitoring to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.

3. A client with preterm labor is being admitted. The nurse anticipates a prescription by the provider for which of the following medications?

• A. Prostaglandin E2
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Methylergonovine
• D. Oxytocin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin is used to delay premature labor by inhibiting uterine contractions. Prostaglandin E2, Methylergonovine, and Oxytocin are not typically used to manage preterm labor. Prostaglandin E2 can be used for cervical ripening and labor induction. Methylergonovine is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is used for labor induction and augmentation of labor in term pregnancies.

4. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

5. A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?

• A. Hyperinsulinemia
• B. Increased deposits of fat in the chest and shoulder area
• C. Brachial plexus injury
• D. Increased blood viscosity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.

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