Nursing Elites

1. A client is 24 hours postoperative following a right-sided mastectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Place the client in the supine position.
• B. Encourage the client to lift objects with the right arm.
• C. Measure the client's blood pressure on the right arm.
• D. Elevate the client's right arm on a pillow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the client's right arm on a pillow is essential post-mastectomy to reduce swelling and promote circulation. Placing the client in the supine position may not be comfortable or ideal after a mastectomy. Encouraging the client to lift objects with the right arm can strain the surgical site and hinder healing. Measuring the client's blood pressure on the right arm should be avoided to prevent disruption to the area and inaccurate readings.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postoperative following a thoracentesis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 96%
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• D. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tracheal deviation is the correct finding to report to the provider. It can indicate a pneumothorax, which is a serious complication following a thoracentesis that requires immediate attention. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate issue. A pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10 is subjective and may not be related to a serious complication. A temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F) is slightly elevated but not a priority over tracheal deviation in this context.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
• B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
• C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
• D. Client reports dyspnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

4. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and is experiencing fluid volume overload. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing fluid volume overload, the nurse should expect a decreased blood pressure. Fluid volume overload can lead to poor cardiac output, which in turn can cause a decrease in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not expected in fluid volume overload; decreased heart rate is not typically associated with fluid volume overload; and an increased heart rate is more commonly seen in response to fluid overload to compensate for the decreased cardiac output.

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