a nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A cool left foot indicates impaired circulation, which could be a sign of compartment syndrome or impaired blood flow. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is expected postoperatively and is not a concerning finding. A capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds is normal), indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 62/min is also within the normal range for an adult, suggesting no immediate concern related to the surgery.

2. A client in active labor has ruptured membranes. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client in active labor has ruptured membranes, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a fetal heart rate monitor. This is crucial for continuous monitoring of the baby's heart rate and ensuring fetal well-being. Initiating fundal massage may be indicated for uterine atony after delivery, not for ruptured membranes during labor. Administering oxytocin IV could be appropriate in some cases to augment labor, but it is not the immediate priority after ruptured membranes. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not necessary solely based on ruptured membranes; it may be indicated for specific situations like epidural anesthesia where the client cannot void.

3. Which medication is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage atrial fibrillation by controlling heart rate. While Warfarin is used to prevent blood clots, it is not primarily used for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation. Aspirin is not the first-line treatment for atrial fibrillation and is generally not recommended for rhythm control. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, but it is not typically prescribed as the primary medication for managing atrial fibrillation.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.

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