ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing laboratory findings for a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Hgb 12.5 g/dL
- B. Platelets 250,000/mm3
- C. WBC 14,000/mm3
- D. Hct 40%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Hct 40%'. An abnormal hematocrit (Hct) level can indicate various conditions such as dehydration, overhydration, or blood disorders, and requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. Hgb 12.5 g/dL (Choice A) is a normal hemoglobin level, Platelets 250,000/mm3 (Choice B) is a normal platelet count, and WBC 14,000/mm3 (Choice C) is slightly elevated but not significantly high to require urgent reporting.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.
3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should weigh yourself once a week while taking this medication.
- B. You should eat foods rich in potassium while taking this medication.
- C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
- D. You should take this medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which manifestation should the nurse expect?
- A. Loose stools.
- B. Jitteriness.
- C. Hypertonia.
- D. Abdominal distention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Jitteriness is a common symptom of neonatal hypoglycemia. When a newborn has a low blood glucose level, they may exhibit signs of central nervous system dysfunction, such as jitteriness. Loose stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with neonatal hypoglycemia. Hypertonia (Choice C) refers to increased muscle tone, which is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Abdominal distention (Choice D) is more often associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypoglycemia.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
- C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
- D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within acceptable ranges and not indicative of life-threatening complications when administering morphine.
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