a nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postpartum and reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days which medication should the nurse adminis
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A client, 12 hours postpartum, reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which medication should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. The client's report of not having a bowel movement for 4 days indicates constipation, and Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that helps initiate bowel movements. Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and osmotic laxative used for indigestion, not for constipation. Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used to reduce stomach acid production and treat heartburn, not constipation. Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent and would be contraindicated in a client experiencing constipation.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

4. What is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is crucial in rapidly correcting dehydration and restoring fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids may not be sufficient in cases of severe dehydration where intravenous rehydration is needed. Monitoring electrolytes is important but administering fluids takes precedence in severe dehydration. Performing a neurological exam is not the primary intervention for severe dehydration.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.

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