Nursing Elites

1. A client, 12 hours postpartum, reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository.
• B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 ml PO.
• C. Famotidine 20 mg PO.
• D. Loperamide 4 mg PO.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. The client's report of not having a bowel movement for 4 days indicates constipation, and Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that helps initiate bowel movements. Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and osmotic laxative used for indigestion, not for constipation. Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used to reduce stomach acid production and treat heartburn, not constipation. Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent and would be contraindicated in a client experiencing constipation.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Provide fluid restriction
• C. Administer diuretics
• D. Monitor intake and output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is crucial in managing patients with chronic heart failure as it helps assess fluid balance. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to detect any sudden weight gain, which could indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. This intervention helps in adjusting treatment plans promptly. Providing fluid restriction (Choice B) can be a part of managing heart failure but is not the primary intervention mentioned in the question. Administering diuretics (Choice C) is a treatment modality for heart failure but does not encompass the comprehensive approach to patient management. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not specifically address the direct assessment of fluid status as daily weight monitoring does.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Increase oxytocin infusion.
• B. Decrease oxytocin infusion.
• C. Maintain oxytocin infusion.
• D. Discontinue oxytocin infusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, the contractions are too frequent and prolonged, which can lead to uterine rupture or fetal distress. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, potentially causing harm to the mother and fetus. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion might not be sufficient to address the issue, making discontinuation the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of both the client and the baby.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid eating spinach while taking this medication.
• B. Massage the injection site after administration.
• C. Administer the injection into the deltoid muscle.
• D. Inject the medication into the abdomen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the abdomen. Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously into the abdomen for optimal absorption. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between enoxaparin and spinach. Choice B is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended and can increase bruising. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin injections should not be administered into the deltoid muscle.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine to a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the insulin via IV push.
• B. Rotate injection sites to prevent tissue damage.
• C. Mix the insulin with regular insulin before administering it.
• D. Administer the insulin at the same time each day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering insulin glargine is to give it at the same time each day. This consistent timing helps maintain stable blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because insulin glargine should not be administered via IV push. Choice B is incorrect as rotating injection sites is typically done for short-acting insulins to prevent lipodystrophy, not for insulin glargine. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine should not be mixed with other insulins before administration.

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