Nursing Elites

1. A client, 12 hours postpartum, reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository.
• B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 ml PO.
• C. Famotidine 20 mg PO.
• D. Loperamide 4 mg PO.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. The client's report of not having a bowel movement for 4 days indicates constipation, and Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that helps initiate bowel movements. Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and osmotic laxative used for indigestion, not for constipation. Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used to reduce stomach acid production and treat heartburn, not constipation. Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent and would be contraindicated in a client experiencing constipation.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to have my INR checked regularly while taking this medication.
• B. I should avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
• C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
• D. I will avoid taking aspirin while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients taking warfarin should have their INR (International Normalized Ratio) checked regularly to monitor the medication's effectiveness and adjust the dose if needed. This monitoring helps to ensure the medication is working correctly and the client is within the therapeutic range. Choice B is incorrect because clients on warfarin should not avoid leafy green vegetables but should maintain a consistent intake. Leafy green vegetables contain vitamin K, which can affect warfarin, so it's important to maintain a consistent intake to keep INR stable. Choice C is incorrect as clients should not stop taking warfarin abruptly without consulting their healthcare provider as it can lead to serious health risks like blood clots. Choice D is incorrect because while taking warfarin, it is important to avoid unnecessary aspirin use due to an increased risk of bleeding. However, this statement does not indicate an understanding of the teaching about the need for regular INR monitoring.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for an arteriogram. Which of the following medications should the nurse instruct the client to discontinue 48 hours prior to the procedure?

• A. Atorvastatin
• B. Digoxin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Metformin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Metformin. Metformin should be discontinued 48 hours before an arteriogram due to the risk of lactic acidosis. Atorvastatin (Choice A) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not typically contraindicated before an arteriogram. Digoxin (Choice B) is a medication used for heart conditions and does not need to be discontinued before an arteriogram. Nifedipine (Choice C) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and angina, and it is not necessary to discontinue before the procedure.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer dopamine hydrochloride at 4 mcg/kg/min for a client weighing 80 kg. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV infusion to deliver?

• A. 6 mL/hr
• B. 8 mL/hr
• C. 12 mL/hr
• D. 16 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct rate, you first need to convert the weight to micrograms: 4 mcg/kg/min * 80 kg = 320 mcg/min. Then, convert micrograms to milligrams: 320 mcg/min / 1000 = 0.32 mg/min. Next, calculate how many milligrams per hour: 0.32 mg/min * 60 min/hr = 19.2 mg/hr. Finally, determine the mL/hr rate by using the concentration provided: 19.2 mg/hr / 800 mg in 250 mL = 6 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 6 mL/hr. Choice B, 8 mL/hr, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation based on the weight and drug concentration. Choices C and D, 12 mL/hr and 16 mL/hr, are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation of the infusion rate for dopamine hydrochloride based on the client's weight and the medication concentration.

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