a nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd which of the following actions should the nurse take
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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with COPD is to encourage the client to increase physical activity. Increased physical activity helps manage COPD symptoms by improving lung function and preventing deconditioning. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended for COPD as it can worsen breathing difficulties. Limiting fluid intake to prevent fluid overload is not typically necessary in COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that require fluid restriction. Administering high-flow oxygen via mask may be necessary for COPD clients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not the initial action for planning care.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.

3. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the professional make in the medical record?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct entry for the medication in the medical record should include the abbreviation 'SC' (subcutaneous) for the route of administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately represents the prescription received. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the frequency and PRN indication. Choice C is incorrect due to the incorrect abbreviation 'subq' and the missing 'q' before the frequency. Choice D is incorrect because it uses 'SC' but the frequency abbreviation 'q' should be followed by the time interval.

4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism. Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in these patients to prevent hypoxemia and support oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering anticoagulants may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin 12 g/dL. In a client with heart failure, a decrease in hemoglobin levels can indicate anemia, which can exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for appropriate management. Choice A, Potassium 4.0 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not typically require immediate reporting. Choice C, BUN 18 mg/dL, and Choice D, Sodium 137 mEq/L, are also within normal ranges and not directly related to heart failure management. Therefore, the hemoglobin level is the most critical finding to report in this scenario.

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