a nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd which of the following actions should the nurse take
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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with COPD is to encourage the client to increase physical activity. Increased physical activity helps manage COPD symptoms by improving lung function and preventing deconditioning. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended for COPD as it can worsen breathing difficulties. Limiting fluid intake to prevent fluid overload is not typically necessary in COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that require fluid restriction. Administering high-flow oxygen via mask may be necessary for COPD clients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not the initial action for planning care.

2. A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately following birth. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, a heart rate of 160/min. A heart rate of 160/min in a newborn exceeds the normal range and could indicate potential issues that need further evaluation by the provider. Acrocyanosis (choice A) is a common finding in newborns and is not concerning. Vernix caseosa (choice B) is a white, cheesy substance found on newborn skin and is a normal finding. While a respiratory rate of 50/min (choice C) is slightly elevated, it is not as concerning as a high heart rate in a newborn.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced intimate partner violence. What is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Develop a safety plan with the client.' When caring for a client who has experienced intimate partner violence, the nurse's priority is to ensure the client's safety. Developing a safety plan is essential to address the immediate safety concerns and provide support to the client. Referring the client to a community support group, as in option B, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. While determining if the client has any injuries, as in option C, is important for assessing physical well-being, the priority is to address safety concerns first. Contacting the client's family about the incident, as in option D, is not appropriate without the client's consent and may further endanger the client.

4. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL. A low serum albumin level indicates protein deficiency, which can be a complication of TPN therapy and requires prompt intervention. The other laboratory findings provided (serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL, blood glucose level 120 mg/dL, and serum sodium 138 mEq/L) are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate complications related to TPN therapy.

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