Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
• B. I should take this medication with food.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands the potential side effect associated with the medication. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is typically taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because a headache is not a common reason to stop taking lisinopril.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Gastric pH of 2.5.
• B. Bowel sounds every 4 hours.
• C. Diarrhea of 250 mL in 24 hours.
• D. Gastric residual of 150 mL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A gastric residual of 150 mL may indicate delayed gastric emptying and should be reported to the provider.

3. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area
• B. Wipe stool from the skin using store-bought baby wipes
• C. Apply talcum powder to the irritated area
• D. Apply a warm compress to the irritated area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Applying zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area is the most appropriate action for diaper dermatitis. Zinc oxide is a barrier cream that helps protect the skin and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because using store-bought baby wipes may contain chemicals or fragrances that can further irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect as talcum powder can also worsen the condition by drying out the skin. Choice D is incorrect because a warm compress is not typically used for diaper dermatitis; it may provide relief for other conditions but is not the best option for diaper dermatitis.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L
• B. Blood pressure 136/84 mm Hg
• C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.

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