ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Provide information about stress management.
- B. Maintain a cool temperature in the client's room.
- C. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
- D. Give glucocorticoid steroids twice a day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress management techniques can help reduce the frequency and severity of Raynaud's episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a cool temperature can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect as epinephrine is not typically used for Raynaud's disease. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not the first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.
2. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Crackles in the lung bases
- C. Dependent edema
- D. Productive cough
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dependent edema is a common finding in clients with pneumonia due to fluid retention and decreased mobility. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia. Crackles in the lung bases (Choice B) are more commonly heard in conditions like heart failure or pulmonary edema. A productive cough (Choice D) can be seen in pneumonia but is not as specific as dependent edema.
4. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?
- A. Monitor lung sounds
- B. Check oxygen saturation
- C. Assess for cough
- D. Assess for fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.
5. A client who has glaucoma and a new prescription for timolol eyedrops is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will place the eye drops in the center of my eye.
- B. I will place pressure on the corner of my eye after using the drops.
- C. I should expect my tears to turn red after using the drops.
- D. I should expect the drops to appear cloudy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because placing pressure on the corner of the eye after using the drops helps in better absorption. Option A is incorrect because eye drops should be placed in the conjunctival sac, not the center of the eye. Option C is incorrect because tears turning red is not an expected outcome of using timolol eyedrops. Option D is incorrect because timolol eyedrops should not appear cloudy.
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