Nursing Elites

1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain.
• B. If pain is not relieved, take another tablet in 10 minutes.
• C. You can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes.
• D. Swallow the tablet with water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If the pain is not relieved after 5 minutes, the client should call 911 and take a second tablet. Taking more than the recommended dose can lead to serious side effects, and swallowing the tablet would not provide the rapid effect needed in cases of chest pain. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the standard protocol for nitroglycerin use in treating angina. Choice B is incorrect as the second tablet should be taken after 5 minutes, not 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as taking up to five tablets in 15 minutes is excessive and can result in serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption, not swallowed.

3. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

• A. I am constipated frequently.
• B. I have been urinating more frequently.
• C. My skin is peeling.
• D. I have ringing in my ears.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation as a side effect. Therefore, the client reporting frequent constipation should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Verapamil use. Increased urination is not a common side effect of Verapamil, peeling skin is more likely related to a dermatological issue, and ringing in the ears is not a known adverse effect of Verapamil.

4. A client has a new prescription for combination oral NRTIs for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

• A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
• B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
• C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
• D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. NRTI antiretroviral medications inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which is essential for HIV replication. By blocking this enzyme, the medications prevent the virus from replicating and spreading. This mechanism of action helps to control the progression of HIV infection in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because NRTIs do not work by preventing protein synthesis, weakening the cell wall of the virus, or blocking HIV entry into cells. These mechanisms are associated with different classes of antiretroviral medications used in HIV treatment.

5. A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?

• A. The client has a decrease in troponin levels.
• B. The client has a regular heart rhythm.
• C. The client experiences a decrease in episodes of angina.
• D. The client's blood pressure remains stable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina is an indicator of Aspirin's effectiveness in preventing cardiovascular events. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the formation of blood clots that could lead to angina episodes or more severe cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because troponin levels, heart rhythm, and blood pressure are not direct indicators of Aspirin's effectiveness in preventing cardiovascular events.

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