ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.
2. A client is prescribed Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Hypertension
- C. Excessive perspiration
- D. Fecal impaction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist, which stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of these receptors can lead to increased sweating (excessive perspiration) as a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications, hypertension is not a common manifestation of muscarinic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not directly related to muscarinic receptor activation.
3. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.
4. Which of the following is not a side effect associated with Prednisone toxicity?
- A. Cataracts
- B. Hypotension
- C. Psychosis
- D. Acne
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prednisone toxicity is not typically associated with hypotension; instead, it can lead to hypertension. Cataracts, psychosis, and acne are known side effects of Prednisone toxicity.
5. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Amiodarone, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice when taking Amiodarone. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Amiodarone, leading to increased blood levels of the drug and potentially causing adverse effects like cardiac toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Amiodarone with meals, at bedtime, or increasing sodium-rich foods intake are not relevant instructions for this medication.
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