a nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate iv continuous infusion which of the following findings should t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

2. A client with cirrhosis is about to receive a dose of lactulose. The client questions the need for the medication, stating they are not constipated. The nurse should explain that lactulose is used in cirrhosis to reduce levels of which component in the bloodstream?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to clients with cirrhosis to lower blood ammonia levels, thus aiding in the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels in cirrhosis can lead to cognitive impairment and hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is B (Ammonia). Glucose (Choice A) is not the component targeted by lactulose in cirrhosis. Potassium (Choice C) and Bicarbonate (Choice D) are not directly affected by lactulose administration in cirrhosis.

3. When does regular insulin typically peak?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Regular insulin usually peaks around 1 to 5 hours after administration. This peak time frame is important to consider when managing blood glucose levels and timing meals to coincide with insulin activity. Choice A, '30 minutes to 2 ½ hours,' is incorrect because regular insulin typically peaks later. Choice B, '1 to 3 hours,' is not the most accurate as the peak for regular insulin can extend beyond 3 hours. Choice C, '6 to 14 hours,' is incorrect as this timeframe is more indicative of long-acting insulins, not regular insulin.

4. A client has a new prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on Oxycodone/Acetaminophen. This is important to prevent exceeding the maximum recommended dose and reducing the risk of liver toxicity. Oxycodone/Acetaminophen already contains Acetaminophen, so additional intake can lead to an overdose of this component. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication on an empty stomach or increasing fiber intake are not specific instructions related to this medication. Avoiding taking the medication before bedtime is not directly relevant to the combination of Oxycodone/Acetaminophen.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, not potassium. Therefore, the client needs to be cautious with foods high in vitamin K, such as green leafy vegetables, rather than foods high in potassium. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements regarding Warfarin therapy and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

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