Nursing Elites

1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

2. A client with cancer is prescribed methotrexate. Which supplement should the healthcare provider recommend to reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity?

• A. Folic acid
• B. Magnesium
• C. Vitamin D
• D. Iron

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is folic acid. Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist, and supplementing with folic acid can help reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity. Folic acid supplementation is commonly recommended to counteract the effects of methotrexate on folate metabolism. Magnesium, Vitamin D, and Iron are not specifically indicated to reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity and therefore are incorrect choices in this scenario.

3. A client has a new prescription for Lovastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Take this medication in the morning.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Lovastatin is to take it at bedtime. Cholesterol production in the liver is highest at night, so taking Lovastatin at bedtime aligns with the body's natural rhythm and maximizes its effectiveness.

4. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) complains of a headache. Which conclusion is most appropriate by the nurse?

• A. A headache indicates a serious allergic reaction to nitroglycerin.
• B. The client will not have a headache if the nitroglycerin is taken with a high-fat meal.
• C. Nitroglycerin does not cause a headache.
• D. The most common side effect of nitroglycerin is a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause headaches as a common side effect due to its vasodilatory properties. It dilates blood vessels, which can lead to headaches. While a headache can indicate other serious conditions, the most common association with nitroglycerin use is a headache. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this side effect and provide appropriate education and support to the client.

5. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. You may experience a rapid heart rate while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Avoid sudden changes in position.
• D. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about Propranolol is to avoid sudden changes in position. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to dizziness and lightheadedness, particularly when changing positions. Therefore, clients should be advised to change positions slowly to prevent falls and related injuries. Choice A is incorrect because Propranolol actually helps lower heart rate and blood pressure. Choice B is not a specific requirement for taking Propranolol. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing high-sodium foods is not recommended with Propranolol which can affect blood pressure control.

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