Nursing Elites

1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

2. A healthcare professional is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client with severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?

• A. Lowered heart rate
• B. Increased myocardial contractility
• C. Decreased conduction through the AV node
• D. Vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, is expected to increase myocardial contractility by stimulating beta1 receptors. This positive inotropic effect leads to an increase in cardiac output. Therefore, the correct answer is increased myocardial contractility, as it is a desired effect of administering dopamine to a client with severe heart failure.

3. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Nausea
• C. Constipation
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tinnitus should be reported by the client as it can be indicative of ototoxicity, an adverse effect associated with cisplatin therapy. Ototoxicity can result in damage to the inner ear structures, leading to hearing problems. Therefore, prompt reporting of tinnitus is essential for early intervention and prevention of potential complications. Nausea, constipation, and weight gain are common side effects of cisplatin but are not typically indicative of serious complications requiring immediate reporting compared to tinnitus.

4. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Avoid salt substitutes.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Take this medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, so it's essential to avoid salt substitutes that may contain potassium which can further elevate potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken once daily in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake can exacerbate hyperkalemia when taking Lisinopril. Choice D is incorrect as Lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach, not with food.

5. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which finding should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, can lead to toxic effects such as bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any significant decreases, as this could indicate Digoxin toxicity and prompt further intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Digoxin toxicity typically presents with bradycardia, not hypertension, hypoglycemia, or hypercalcemia.

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