Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Asthma
• B. Diabetes mellitus
• C. Hypertension
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication for Propranolol due to the potential of worsening bronchoconstriction and causing respiratory distress in individuals with this condition. Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and glaucoma are not contraindications for Propranolol.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

3. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

• A. Over 1,000 mg
• B. 750 mg
• C. Over 1,500 mg
• D. 150 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

4. When does regular insulin typically peak?

• A. 30 minutes to 2 ½ hours
• B. 1 to 3 hours
• C. 6 to 14 hours
• D. 1 to 5 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Regular insulin usually peaks around 1 to 5 hours after administration. This peak time frame is important to consider when managing blood glucose levels and timing meals to coincide with insulin activity. Choice A, '30 minutes to 2 ½ hours,' is incorrect because regular insulin typically peaks later. Choice B, '1 to 3 hours,' is not the most accurate as the peak for regular insulin can extend beyond 3 hours. Choice C, '6 to 14 hours,' is incorrect as this timeframe is more indicative of long-acting insulins, not regular insulin.

5. A patient is receiving education about a new prescription for Omeprazole to manage heartburn. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. This medication decreases the production of gastric acid.
• C. Take this medication 2 hours after eating.
• D. This medication can cause hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct information to include when teaching a patient about Omeprazole is that it decreases the production of gastric acid. Omeprazole works by inhibiting the proton pump in the stomach lining, thereby reducing acid secretion. This mechanism helps in managing heartburn symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect because Omeprazole is usually taken before a meal. Choice C is incorrect as Omeprazole is typically taken before meals, not after. Choice D is incorrect because hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of Omeprazole.

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