ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to this medication?
- A. Asthma
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Hypertension
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication for Propranolol due to the potential of worsening bronchoconstriction and causing respiratory distress in individuals with this condition. Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and glaucoma are not contraindications for Propranolol.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Hypovolemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Agitation
- D. Headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Headache. Headache during desmopressin therapy can indicate water intoxication, which is a potential adverse effect. Desmopressin is a medication used to treat Diabetes Insipidus by reducing excessive urination and thirst. Monitoring for headaches is crucial as it can signal decreased sodium levels due to water retention, leading to water intoxication, which is a serious concern. Hypovolemia, hypercalcemia, and agitation are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for Diabetes Insipidus.
3. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?
- A. Cefaclor
- B. Cefazolin
- C. Cefepime
- D. Cephalexin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.
4. A client is receiving treatment with bevacizumab. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Bevacizumab is known to cause hypertension as a common adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, hypokalemia, is not typically associated with bevacizumab treatment. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of bevacizumab. Choice D, hypocalcemia, is not a recognized side effect of bevacizumab.
5. A client has a prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
- C. Expect to have increased energy levels.
- D. Avoid foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood pressure regularly. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that helps lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to ensure it remains within the target range and to assess the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of taking Hydralazine is usually not specified as bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because increased energy levels are not an expected effect of Hydralazine. Choice D is incorrect because Hydralazine does not interact with potassium in the same way as other medications like potassium-sparing diuretics.
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