Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed gentamicin for an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
• B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
• C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
• D. Respiratory rate of 22/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine is a significant finding that can indicate nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Nephrotoxicity can lead to kidney damage, and monitoring for this adverse reaction is crucial during gentamicin therapy. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin adverse reactions. Decreased urine output (Choice C) may suggest kidney impairment but is not as specific as the presence of red blood cells in the urine. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to potential adverse reactions to gentamicin.

2. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Bisacodyl suppositories. Which of the following information should the provider include?

• A. Expect results within 15 to 60 minutes.
• B. Insert the suppository as directed by the healthcare provider.
• C. Keep the suppository at room temperature.
• D. Expect rectal burning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating a client about Bisacodyl suppositories, it is important to include information about the common side effects. Rectal burning is a frequent side effect that can occur after using Bisacodyl suppositories, so the client should be informed to expect this discomfort. The onset of action for Bisacodyl suppositories is typically within 15 to 60 minutes, so the client should expect results relatively quickly, not in 6 to 12 hours. It is essential to follow the healthcare provider's instructions on how to insert the suppository correctly. Keeping the suppository at room temperature is sufficient; refrigeration is not required. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it addresses a common side effect and prepares the client for potential discomfort. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not focus on a significant side effect, proper administration, or storage requirements.

3. A client has been prescribed Nitroglycerin patches for angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
• B. Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.
• C. Apply the patch at the same time every day.
• D. Cut the patch in half if your blood pressure is well controlled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.' Nitroglycerin patches should be removed for 12 hours each day to prevent the development of tolerance. This nitrate-free interval ensures the medication remains effective in managing angina. Choice A is incorrect because applying the patch to a different site each time is not necessary; it is more important to ensure a nitrate-free interval. Choice C is incorrect because while consistency in timing is good for medication adherence, the crucial aspect for Nitroglycerin patches is the nitrate-free interval. Choice D is incorrect because cutting the patch in half based on blood pressure control is not a recommended practice and could alter the medication's efficacy.

4. A client is taking Epoetin Alfa for anemia. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hematocrit
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the hematocrit level to evaluate the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy since it stimulates red blood cell production. Hematocrit reflects the volume of red blood cells in the blood, providing a direct measure of the therapy's impact on increasing red blood cell mass and addressing anemia. Monitoring white blood cell count and platelet count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy for anemia. Serum potassium level monitoring may be necessary due to potential side effects of the medication, but it is not the primary indicator of therapy effectiveness in treating anemia.

5. What classification of drug is Penicillin?

• A. Antiarrhythmic
• B. Anticonvulsant
• C. Antibacterial
• D. Mood stabilizer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Penicillin is classified as an antibacterial drug, specifically used to treat bacterial infections. It works by inhibiting the growth of bacteria, making it an effective treatment for various bacterial infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as Penicillin does not belong to these drug classifications. Penicillin does not have any direct effect on heart rhythm (antiarrhythmic), does not treat seizures (anticonvulsant), and is not used to stabilize mood (mood stabilizer).

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