Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed gentamicin for an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
• B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
• C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
• D. Respiratory rate of 22/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine is a significant finding that can indicate nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Nephrotoxicity can lead to kidney damage, and monitoring for this adverse reaction is crucial during gentamicin therapy. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin adverse reactions. Decreased urine output (Choice C) may suggest kidney impairment but is not as specific as the presence of red blood cells in the urine. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to potential adverse reactions to gentamicin.

2. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of bran fiber.
• B. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
• C. Take the medication with antacids.
• D. Avoid drinking orange juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, it is essential to monitor their heart rate before each dose. Changes such as a heart rate below 60 bpm should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. This is crucial because Digoxin can affect heart rhythm, and monitoring the heart rate helps in identifying any potential issues early on.

3. In which of the following cases is Lansoprazole not used?

• A. Gastritis
• B. Peptic Ulcers
• C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
• D. Thalamus hypertrophy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor mainly used to treat conditions related to the stomach, such as gastritis, peptic ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Thalamus hypertrophy is not a condition that Lansoprazole is indicated for; it is used for gastrointestinal issues and not neurological conditions.

4. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?

• A. Varicella vaccine
• B. Rubella vaccine
• C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
• D. Measles vaccine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the inactivated influenza vaccine. During pregnancy, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend the inactivated influenza vaccine as safe for pregnant individuals. This vaccination is crucial to protect both the pregnant person and their developing baby from influenza-related complications. It is essential to avoid live vaccines, such as varicella (chickenpox), rubella, and measles vaccines during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of harm to the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because live vaccines are generally contraindicated during pregnancy.

5. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Verapamil, leading to increased blood levels of the medication, which can potentiate its effects, potentially causing adverse reactions like hypotension and bradycardia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Verapamil at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to its metabolism or side effects. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to Verapamil use. Increasing potassium-rich foods intake is not necessary with Verapamil and could potentially lead to hyperkalemia in some cases.

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