ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Consume foods rich in potassium.
- C. Take this medication with a meal.
- D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to dehydration due to increased urination. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. It is essential to educate the client to monitor these signs and seek medical attention if they occur. Choice A is incorrect because Hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disruption of sleep due to increased urination during the night. Choice B is incorrect because while Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to potassium loss, consuming foods rich in potassium is not a specific instruction related to this medication. Choice C is incorrect because taking Hydrochlorothiazide with a meal is not a specific requirement for its administration.
2. A client has a new prescription for Valproic Acid. The client should be informed that which of the following laboratory tests need to be completed periodically? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Thrombocyte count.
- B. Hematocrit.
- C. Amylase.
- D. Liver function tests.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Valproic acid can lead to thrombocytopenia, making it essential to monitor the client's thrombocyte count periodically. Additionally, valproic acid can cause pancreatitis, necessitating the monitoring of amylase levels. Furthermore, valproic acid carries a risk of hepatotoxicity, requiring regular monitoring of liver function tests.
3. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Ringing in the ears
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.
4. What is the appropriate medication to administer for a suspected opioid overdose in a patient who comes to the hospital?
- A. Exenatide
- B. Naloxone
- C. Heparin
- D. Tolvaptan
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is the drug of choice for managing opioid overdoses as it competitively antagonizes opioid receptors, reversing the respiratory depression and sedation caused by opioids. It is crucial in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose to prevent fatal outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Exenatide is a medication used to treat diabetes, heparin is an anticoagulant, and tolvaptan is a diuretic. None of these medications are indicated for the management of opioid overdose.
5. What is a desired outcome of the drug Phenytoin?
- A. Decrease symptoms of PTSD
- B. Resolution of signs of infection
- C. Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation
- D. Prevention or relief of bronchospasm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation. Phenytoin is primarily used as an antiepileptic medication to manage and prevent seizures. It does not directly impact symptoms of PTSD (Choice A), resolution of signs of infection (Choice B), or prevention or relief of bronchospasm (Choice D). Therefore, the desired outcome of Phenytoin is to control seizures effectively while avoiding excessive sedation.
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