a nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure and is receiving mannitol which of the following findings should the nurse repo
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to cough. Monitoring for a persistent dry cough is crucial as it may indicate the need for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to be monitored as adverse effects.

3. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following herbal supplements should the client be instructed to avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: St. John's wort should be avoided by clients taking Warfarin as it can reduce the medication's effectiveness by affecting its metabolism. Echinacea, garlic, and ginseng are also known to interact with Warfarin, either by increasing the risk of bleeding or altering its anticoagulant effects. However, St. John's wort is particularly significant due to its potent enzyme-inducing properties that can lead to subtherapeutic levels of Warfarin, potentially increasing the risk of blood clots.

4. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.

5. A client has been prescribed Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching for a client prescribed Warfarin is to 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Foods high in vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of Warfarin by interfering with its anticoagulant effects, potentially leading to blood clotting issues. It is crucial for clients on Warfarin therapy to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods to ensure the stability of the medication's effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Warfarin with food, monitoring heart rate daily, or limiting fluid intake are not directly related to optimizing the effectiveness of Warfarin therapy.

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