a nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure and is receiving mannitol which of the following findings should the nurse repo
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.

2. A client is receiving treatment with etoposide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Etoposide, a chemotherapeutic agent, commonly causes hypotension as an adverse effect. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of hypotension, such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a drop in blood pressure, to promptly intervene and prevent complications.

3. What is one of the therapeutic uses of Valproate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valproate, also known as Valproic acid, is commonly used in medicine for the suppression of seizure activity. It is an anticonvulsant medication that helps manage and prevent seizures in various conditions such as epilepsy. While it is not used for replacing hypothyroidism, maintaining blood glucose levels, or lowering blood pressure, its primary therapeutic use is in managing seizures.

4. A client is being taught about Terbutaline. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. Therefore, the client demonstrating understanding by recognizing that the medication will stop contractions is the most accurate response. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Terbutaline is primarily used to inhibit contractions in preterm labor, not prevent vaginal bleeding, promote blood flow to the baby, or increase prostaglandin production.

5. A client has a prescription for Amoxicillin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Complete the entire course of therapy. It is crucial for clients to complete the entire course of amoxicillin therapy to ensure the infection is fully treated and to prevent antibiotic resistance. Prematurely stopping the antibiotic can lead to incomplete eradication of the infection, potentially causing it to return and be more difficult to treat. Choices A and B are not specific to amoxicillin and are general medication administration instructions. Choice C is not a common side effect of amoxicillin and does not require patient education.

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