Nursing Elites

1. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
• B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Bilateral equal pupil size

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.

2. The client makes which statement about lifestyle changes to reduce the development and progression of coronary artery disease that indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. “I will check my weight regularly for any gain or loss.”
• B. “I’ll make sure to take my high blood pressure medications.”
• C. “I am attending a smoking cessation class.”
• D. “As long as I exercise, stress at my job will not bother me.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client stating, 'As long as I exercise, stress at my job will not bother me,' indicates a misunderstanding of the relationship between exercise and stress management. It is important to clarify that while exercise can help reduce stress, it may not eliminate all stressors, especially those related to work. Further teaching is needed to ensure the client understands the multifactorial approach required to address stress and its impact on coronary artery disease.

3. A healthcare professional is planning to administer subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before injecting.
• B. Insert the needle completely into the client's tissue.
• C. Administer the injection in the client's thigh.
• D. Aspirate carefully after inserting the needle into the client's skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B. When administering enoxaparin, it is essential to insert the needle completely into the client's tissue to ensure a deep subcutaneous injection. This method helps in the appropriate delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because expelling air bubbles is not necessary with subcutaneous injections and may lead to medication loss. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is usually administered in the abdomen, not the thigh. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or bleeding.

4. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) complains of a headache. Which conclusion is most appropriate by the nurse?

• A. A headache indicates a serious allergic reaction to nitroglycerin.
• B. The client will not have a headache if the nitroglycerin is taken with a high-fat meal.
• C. Nitroglycerin does not cause a headache.
• D. The most common side effect of nitroglycerin is a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause headaches as a common side effect due to its vasodilatory properties. It dilates blood vessels, which can lead to headaches. While a headache can indicate other serious conditions, the most common association with nitroglycerin use is a headache. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this side effect and provide appropriate education and support to the client.

5. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
• B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
• C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
• D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

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