when administering an antiulcer agents you should be more cautious when administering it to
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. When administering an Antiulcer Agent, you should be more cautious when administering it to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering an antiulcer agent, caution is warranted in patients with renal failure due to the potential impact on drug metabolism and excretion. Additionally, elderly patients may be more susceptible to adverse effects from antiulcer agents due to age-related physiological changes. Therefore, it is important to be more cautious when administering antiulcer agents to patients with renal failure and elderly patients. Choice A, a healthy 27-year-old patient, would typically not require as much caution compared to patients with renal failure or elderly patients when administering antiulcer agents. Therefore, choices B & C are the correct options for increased caution.

2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following foods should the provider instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients taking Warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as broccoli, as they can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Vitamin K can counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, potentially leading to blood clotting issues. Broccoli is rich in vitamin K, so its consumption should be consistent to avoid fluctuations in the medication's effectiveness. Bananas, chicken, and potatoes are not known to significantly interact with Warfarin and do not pose a risk of affecting its anticoagulant properties.

3. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

4. A client is being educated about the use of Fluticasone to treat Perennial Rhinitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Fluticasone may show some benefits within a few hours, but its full therapeutic effect may take up to 3 weeks to be achieved in treating Perennial Rhinitis. Option A is incorrect as the frequency of Fluticasone use is usually once daily. Option C is incorrect as Fluticasone is not used for motion sickness. Option D is incorrect as Fluticasone is a preventive medication and not used for immediate relief when nasal passages are blocked.

5. While assessing a client taking Amiodarone to treat Atrial Fibrillation, which of the following findings is indicative of Amiodarone toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity, which is a known adverse effect of Amiodarone. Clients on Amiodarone should be monitored for signs of pulmonary toxicity such as cough, dyspnea, and chest pain. This is important to detect early and prevent serious complications. The other options are not typically associated with Amiodarone toxicity. Light yellow urine is not a common sign, tinnitus is more related to ear problems, and blue-gray skin discoloration is not a recognized symptom of Amiodarone toxicity.

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