ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased shortness of breath.
- B. Decreased peripheral edema.
- C. Increased jugular venous distention.
- D. Increased heart rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing fluid overload in clients with heart failure by increasing urine output. A decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively removing excess fluid from the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate an improvement in the client's condition. Increased shortness of breath, increased jugular venous distention, and increased heart rate are all signs of worsening heart failure and would not be expected findings when furosemide is effective.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has hypovolemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Increased blood pressure.
- D. Bounding pulse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In hypovolemia, the body responds to decreased fluid volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain adequate circulation. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not expected in hypovolemia since the heart rate typically increases to compensate for the reduced blood volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is unlikely in hypovolemia as the decreased fluid volume leads to decreased pressure. A bounding pulse (Choice D) is more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or fever, not specifically with hypovolemia.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure: 102/56 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate: 95/min.
- C. Sore throat.
- D. WBC count 14,000/mm^3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.
4. A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply a tourniquet above the insertion site
- B. Shave the area around the insertion site
- C. Insert the catheter at a 15-degree angle
- D. Use an 18-gauge needle for insertion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the catheter at a 15-degree angle. This angle allows for easier venous access by ensuring proper catheter placement into the vein. Applying a tourniquet above the insertion site can help distend the vein for better visualization but is not the immediate action required for the insertion process. Shaving the area around the insertion site is not necessary unless there is excessive hair that may interfere with the insertion. Using an 18-gauge needle for insertion is a specific detail related to the equipment rather than the technique of insertion.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Chicken breast
- B. Pasta
- C. Spinach
- D. Yogurt
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.
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