ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?
- A. Serotonin syndrome
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Pseudo-parkinsonism
- D. Acute dystonia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin syndrome. When a client takes St. John's wort, a herbal supplement, along with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of developing serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by symptoms such as confusion, agitation, fever, sweating, shivering, tremors, muscle rigidity, and in severe cases, seizures and coma. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tardive dyskinesia is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, pseudo-parkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, and acute dystonia is a side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by sustained muscle contractions.
3. How should fluid balance in a patient with heart failure be monitored?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor input and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in assessing fluid balance in patients with heart failure because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid accumulation but may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?
- A. Bilirubin.
- B. Albumin.
- C. Ammonia.
- D. Prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.
5. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient receiving diuretics?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance, making it a sensitive indicator. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of overall fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a late sign of fluid imbalance and may not be sensitive enough to detect subtle changes. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is relevant but may not directly reflect fluid balance as it can be influenced by various other factors.
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