a nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.

2. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer medications to a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube is to check for tube placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the NG tube is correctly positioned in the stomach and not in the respiratory tract, reducing the risk of aspiration. Flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride, administering the medications as a bolus, or dissolving the medications in sterile water should only be done after confirming the proper placement of the NG tube. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they precede the essential step of verifying tube placement.

5. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT in patients receiving heparin therapy. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to assess the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice C) monitoring is essential for detecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia rather than assessing heparin therapy itself. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

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