ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer thrombolytics as prescribed.
- B. Massage the affected extremity every 2 hours.
- C. Apply warm compresses to the affected extremity.
- D. Place the client in a supine position with the legs elevated.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for a nurse caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to apply warm compresses to the affected extremity. Warm compresses help reduce swelling and pain in clients with DVT. Administering thrombolytics (Choice A) is not typically done without specific orders due to the risk of bleeding. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and lead to complications. Placing the client in a supine position with the legs elevated (Choice D) may increase the risk of clot dislodgment.
2. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Loose stools.
- B. Jitteriness.
- C. Hypertonia.
- D. Abdominal distention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice A, 'Loose stools,' is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice C, 'Hypertonia,' is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns; instead, hypotonia may be observed. Choice D, 'Abdominal distention,' is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns.
3. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving monitoring.
- B. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
- C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
- D. A client who has diabetes and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a new onset of tachypnea can indicate a respiratory complication, which requires immediate assessment. Sinus arrhythmia, epidural analgesia with weakness, and a hemoglobin A1C level of 6.8% in a client with diabetes do not pose immediate life-threatening concerns that require urgent assessment compared to the potential respiratory issues associated with tachypnea.
4. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the stages of wound healing. The nurse should include in the teaching that collagen is added to the wound during which of the following stages?
- A. Hemostasis phase.
- B. Inflammatory phase.
- C. Proliferative phase.
- D. Maturation phase.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferative phase. During the proliferative phase of wound healing, collagen is added to the wound to promote tissue regeneration. In the hemostasis phase (choice A), the primary goal is to stop bleeding by forming a blood clot. The inflammatory phase (choice B) involves cleaning the wound and preparing it for healing. The maturation phase (choice D) is when the wound undergoes remodeling and gains strength, but collagen addition primarily occurs during the proliferative phase.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.
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