Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing discharge information for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following resources should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Personal blogs about managing the adverse effects of diabetes medications.
• B. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine.
• C. Diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference.
• D. Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Food exchange lists from the American Diabetes Association are valuable resources for individuals with diabetes as they provide specific guidance on meal planning and portion control, which are crucial for managing blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because personal blogs may not always provide accurate or evidence-based information. Choice B is incorrect as food label recommendations, while important, may not offer the structured guidance needed for meal planning in diabetes. Choice C is also incorrect as medication information is different from dietary guidance needed for diabetes management.

2. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient refusing treatment for religious reasons?

• A. Respect the patient's beliefs
• B. Attempt to persuade the patient
• C. Provide education on treatment benefits
• D. Document the refusal and notify the provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Respecting the patient's beliefs is crucial in providing patient-centered care. Attempting to persuade the patient may violate their autonomy and decision-making capacity, leading to a breakdown in trust. Providing education on treatment benefits may be appropriate in other situations but is not the best approach when a patient refuses treatment based on religious reasons. Documenting the refusal and notifying the provider are important steps to ensure proper continuity of care, but the primary response should be to respect the patient's beliefs to maintain a trusting relationship and uphold ethical standards.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 78/min
• B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Serosanguineous wound drainage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to drink adequate fluids daily.
• B. Administer pain medication as needed.
• C. Instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow.
• D. Encourage the client to eat a balanced diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client post-bowel resection is to instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow. This technique helps prevent dehiscence, which is the separation of wound edges, and reduces pain when coughing or moving. Splinting supports the incision site, decreasing tension on the wound. Encouraging the client to drink adequate fluids promotes hydration and aids in recovery, but a specific volume like 1,000 mL mentioned in choice A is not essential. Pain medication should be administered as needed for adequate pain control, not necessarily before every meal. Instructing the client to eat a balanced diet, including adequate protein, is crucial for wound healing and overall recovery, rather than limiting protein intake.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lipsmacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

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