Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 92%
• B. Use of pursed-lip breathing
• C. Increased anterior-posterior chest diameter
• D. Productive cough with green sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A productive cough with green sputum can indicate a bacterial infection, which is a concern for clients with COPD. Reporting this finding to the provider is important for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are not as concerning in the context of COPD management. An oxygen saturation of 92% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients, pursed-lip breathing is a helpful technique for managing breathing difficulties in COPD, and an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter is a common finding in clients with COPD due to chronic air trapping.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take a calcium supplement once daily.
• B. Walk for 30 minutes three times per week.
• C. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• D. Increase intake of vitamin D.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking regularly is beneficial for clients with osteoporosis as it helps maintain bone density and prevent fractures. Choice A is not the most appropriate because clients with osteoporosis often require more than just calcium supplements. Choice C is incorrect as weight-bearing exercises actually help strengthen bones. Choice D is important, but walking regularly has a more direct impact on bone health in clients with osteoporosis.

3. A client with preeclampsia and postpartum hemorrhage is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated?

• A. Methylergonovine
• B. Misoprostol
• C. Dinoprostone
• D. Oxytocin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Methylergonovine. Methylergonovine is contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia due to the risk of hypertension. Misoprostol (choice B), Dinoprostone (choice C), and Oxytocin (choice D) are appropriate medications for managing postpartum hemorrhage and are not contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should report a sore throat to my provider.
• B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
• C. This medication increases my risk for infection.
• D. This medication decreases my appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

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