Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 92%
• B. Use of pursed-lip breathing
• C. Increased anterior-posterior chest diameter
• D. Productive cough with green sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A productive cough with green sputum can indicate a bacterial infection, which is a concern for clients with COPD. Reporting this finding to the provider is important for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are not as concerning in the context of COPD management. An oxygen saturation of 92% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients, pursed-lip breathing is a helpful technique for managing breathing difficulties in COPD, and an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter is a common finding in clients with COPD due to chronic air trapping.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 78/min.
• B. Vision changes.
• C. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
• D. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vision changes. Vision changes are a classic sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. A heart rate of 78/min, a respiratory rate of 16/min, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg are within normal ranges and are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, they would not be the priority findings to report in this situation.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

4. A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily.
• B. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
• C. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
• D. Apply a moisture barrier ointment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.

5. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with heart failure, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method for assessing fluid balance. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Monitoring input and output (B) is essential but may not always accurately reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (C) is important as it can indicate fluid accumulation, but daily weight monitoring is more precise. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.

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