Nursing Elites

1. A client with Crohn's disease is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following interventions should the nurse not include in the care of this client?

• A. Remove the parenteral nutrition solution from the refrigerator 2 hours before infusion.
• B. Remove unused parenteral nutrition after 12 hours of use.
• C. Monitor daily laboratory values and report abnormalities as needed.
• D. Monitor the flow rate of the parenteral nutrition carefully and adjust it if necessary.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In caring for a client receiving parenteral nutrition, it is important to follow proper guidelines to ensure safety and effectiveness. Unused parenteral nutrition should be removed after 24 hours, not 12 hours, to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is correct as it ensures the solution is at room temperature before infusion. Option C is essential for monitoring the client's response to parenteral nutrition. Option D is important to maintain the correct flow rate and adjust it as needed. Therefore, option B is the incorrect choice among the options provided.

2. What are the contraindications for using MI Paste?

• A. Children under six
• B. Individuals with a milk casein allergy
• C. Pregnant women
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: MI Paste is contraindicated in children under six and in individuals with a milk casein allergy. The reason is that MI Paste contains casein phosphopeptide, which is derived from milk. Therefore, it may cause allergic reactions in those who are sensitive to milk proteins. Pregnant women (Choice C) are not contraindicated for using MI Paste unless they have a known allergy to milk casein. Hence, the correct answer is 'D: Both A and B'.

3. The rationales for using a prostaglandin gel for a client prior to the induction of labor is to:

• A. Soften and efface the cervix
• B. Numb cervical pain receptors
• C. Prevent cervical lacerations
• D. Stimulate uterine contractions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. The nurse understands that malnutrition is a prevalent issue among hospitalized individuals. What is it commonly associated with?

• A. Decreased health care expenses
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Decreased mortality rates
• D. A compromised immune system

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malnutrition is often associated with a weakened immune system. This is because when the body is not sufficiently nourished, it lacks the necessary nutrients to maintain a well-functioning immune system, making patients more vulnerable to infections and other health complications. This can potentially increase mortality rates and prolong hospital stays, contrary to choice C. Choices A and B are incorrect as malnutrition does not lead to decreased health care costs or high blood pressure. In fact, it may increase health care costs due to the potential for increased complications and extended hospital stays.

5. Each statement is true regarding oral exposure to fermentable carbohydrates, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Longer exposure leads to an increased risk of demineralization
• B. Longer exposure increases the opportunity for remineralization
• C. The Stephan curve illustrates pH changes within plaque after rinsing with a sugar solution
• D. The critical pH at which enamel decalcification occurs is 5.5 or less

Correct answer: B

Rationale: All the statements above are accurate about oral exposure to fermentable carbohydrates, except for option B. In fact, longer exposure to these carbohydrates decreases the opportunity for remineralization. This is because the process of demineralization, in which minerals are lost from the tooth enamel, is sped up by the presence of fermentable carbohydrates. The Stephan curve (option C) is a graph that demonstrates how the pH of dental plaque changes after a sugar rinse, usually dropping (becoming more acidic), which can lead to enamel decalcification. Option D is also accurate, as a pH of 5.5 or lower is the critical point at which enamel starts to decalcify.

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