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ATI Nutrition
1. A client with Crohn's disease is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following interventions should the nurse not include in the care of this client?
- A. Remove the parenteral nutrition solution from the refrigerator 2 hours before infusion.
- B. Remove unused parenteral nutrition after 12 hours of use.
- C. Monitor daily laboratory values and report abnormalities as needed.
- D. Monitor the flow rate of the parenteral nutrition carefully and adjust it if necessary.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In caring for a client receiving parenteral nutrition, it is important to follow proper guidelines to ensure safety and effectiveness. Unused parenteral nutrition should be removed after 24 hours, not 12 hours, to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is correct as it ensures the solution is at room temperature before infusion. Option C is essential for monitoring the client's response to parenteral nutrition. Option D is important to maintain the correct flow rate and adjust it as needed. Therefore, option B is the incorrect choice among the options provided.
2. What is a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Night blindness
- C. Bone pain
- D. Rashes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone pain. Vitamin D deficiency often leads to bone pain and weakness as it plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health by aiding in the absorption of calcium. Hair loss (choice A) is not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency. Night blindness (choice B) is typically associated with vitamin A deficiency, not vitamin D deficiency. Rashes (choice D) are not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency.
3. What best describes a task of the registered dietitian?
- A. administering total parenteral nutrition
- B. administering formula through feeding tubes
- C. prescribing diet orders
- D. conducting nutrition assessments
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, conducting nutrition assessments. Registered dietitians are responsible for assessing an individual's nutritional status, dietary intake, and health needs. This assessment forms the basis for developing personalized nutrition care plans. Choices A and B involve the administration of specialized nutrition support, which is typically done by healthcare providers with specific training in those areas. Choice C, prescribing diet orders, may fall outside the scope of practice for a dietitian as they focus more on assessment, education, and counseling related to nutrition rather than prescribing medical treatments.
4. The stages of grieving identified by Elizabeth Kubler-Ross are:
- A. Numbness, anger, resolution and reorganization
- B. Denial, anger, identification, depression and acceptance
- C. Anger, loneliness, depression and resolution
- D. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
5. Almost all (99%) of the calcium in the body is used for?
- A. regulating the transmission of nerve impulses
- B. providing energy for cells
- C. providing rigidity for the bones
- D. regulating muscle contraction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: providing rigidity for the bones. Almost all of the calcium in the body is utilized for maintaining the strength and structure of bones and teeth. Calcium plays a crucial role in skeletal health by providing rigidity and support to the skeletal system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while calcium is essential for various physiological functions like nerve transmission, cell energy production, and muscle contraction, the majority of calcium in the body is primarily allocated for bone health.
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