Nursing Elites

1. A client with Crohn's disease is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following interventions should the nurse not include in the care of this client?

• A. Remove the parenteral nutrition solution from the refrigerator 2 hours before infusion.
• B. Remove unused parenteral nutrition after 12 hours of use.
• C. Monitor daily laboratory values and report abnormalities as needed.
• D. Monitor the flow rate of the parenteral nutrition carefully and adjust it if necessary.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In caring for a client receiving parenteral nutrition, it is important to follow proper guidelines to ensure safety and effectiveness. Unused parenteral nutrition should be removed after 24 hours, not 12 hours, to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is correct as it ensures the solution is at room temperature before infusion. Option C is essential for monitoring the client's response to parenteral nutrition. Option D is important to maintain the correct flow rate and adjust it as needed. Therefore, option B is the incorrect choice among the options provided.

2. A person who consumes mostly pre-packaged meals is likely consuming too much ____.

• A. iron
• B. zinc
• C. sodium
• D. riboflavin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pre-packaged meals often contain high levels of sodium, which can contribute to hypertension and other health issues when consumed in excess.

3. What is a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency?

• A. Hair loss
• B. Night blindness
• C. Bone pain
• D. Rashes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone pain. Vitamin D deficiency often leads to bone pain and weakness as it plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health by aiding in the absorption of calcium. Hair loss (choice A) is not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency. Night blindness (choice B) is typically associated with vitamin A deficiency, not vitamin D deficiency. Rashes (choice D) are not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency.

4. Which type of nutritional deficiency results from inadequate absorption?

• A. Unmeasurable
• B. Primary deficiency
• C. Secondary deficiency
• D. Codependent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary deficiency. A nutritional deficiency resulting from decreased intake is called a primary deficiency. On the other hand, a secondary deficiency refers to a vitamin deficiency caused by inadequate absorption or use, increased requirements, excretion, or destruction. Choice A, 'Unmeasurable,' is incorrect as it does not describe a type of nutritional deficiency. Choice B, 'Primary deficiency,' is incorrect as it refers to a deficiency caused by decreased intake, not inadequate absorption. Choice D, 'Codependent,' is incorrect as it is unrelated to the context of nutritional deficiencies.

5. What is a likely effect on a patient whose lab results reveal hypoalbuminemia?

• A. Infection
• B. Rickets
• C. Hypertension
• D. Edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypoalbuminemia, which refers to low albumin levels in the blood, is often associated with edema. Albumin helps maintain oncotic pressure, which keeps fluid within blood vessels. When albumin levels are low, this pressure decreases, leading to fluid leakage from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues, resulting in edema. The other choices are less likely effects of hypoalbuminemia. Hypoalbuminemia doesn't directly cause infections (Choice A), rickets (Choice B) caused by vitamin D deficiency, or hypertension (Choice C) associated with factors like high sodium intake, obesity, and genetic predisposition.

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