Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
• C. Eat three large meals per day
• D. Restrict protein intake to 1 g/kg/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.

2. What is the purpose of an escharotomy?

• A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. To reduce pain in the affected area
• C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
• D. To prevent infection from spreading

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. This procedure helps prevent complications such as compartment syndrome by releasing the constricting eschar. Choice B is incorrect because while pain relief may be a secondary outcome of the procedure, the primary purpose is to address pressure and circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as an escharotomy specifically focuses on releasing pressure, not removing necrotic tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of an escharotomy is not to prevent infection but rather to address the immediate issues related to deep burn injuries.

3. What dietary recommendations should a patient with GERD follow?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Consume liquids between meals
• C. Eat three large meals per day
• D. Drink milk as a snack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with GERD should follow dietary recommendations to manage their symptoms effectively. Choice A, 'Avoid mint and spicy foods,' is the correct answer. Mint and spicy foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B, 'Consume liquids between meals,' is not the best recommendation as consuming liquids during meals can worsen GERD symptoms by increasing stomach pressure. Choice C, 'Eat three large meals per day,' is incorrect as large meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms; instead, smaller, more frequent meals are recommended. Choice D, 'Drink milk as a snack,' is not ideal as full-fat dairy products like milk can trigger acid reflux in some individuals. Therefore, the best recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods.

4. A patient is admitted with an air leak in a chest tube system. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
• B. Continue monitoring the patient
• C. Replace the chest tube system
• D. Clamp the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient with an air leak in the chest tube system, the nurse should tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This action can help resolve the air leak by ensuring there are no loose connections or leaks in the system. Continuing to monitor the patient (Choice B) is important, but addressing the air leak is a priority. Replacing the chest tube system (Choice C) may not be necessary if tightening the connections resolves the issue. Clamping the chest tube (Choice D) is not appropriate as it can lead to tension pneumothorax.

5. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count 4,500/mm3
• C. Potassium levels 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin levels below 12g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

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