ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
- C. Eat three large meals per day
- D. Restrict protein intake to 1 g/kg/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.
2. What is the priority action when a healthcare professional misreads a glucose reading and administers excess insulin?
- A. Administer IV glucose
- B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
- C. Monitor for hypoglycemia
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority action when a healthcare professional misreads a glucose reading and administers excess insulin is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Excess insulin can lead to dangerously low blood sugar levels (hypoglycemia), which can result in serious complications. Monitoring for hypoglycemia allows for timely identification and intervention to prevent harm. Administering IV glucose may be necessary if hypoglycemia occurs. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not the priority in this situation, as excess insulin would lower blood sugar levels. Documenting the incident is important for reporting and quality improvement purposes but should not take precedence over ensuring patient safety by monitoring for hypoglycemia.
3. What intervention is needed when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube system
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the correct intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This can help resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the entire chest tube system are not appropriate interventions in this scenario. Clamping the tube can lead to a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the chest tube system may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by simply tightening the connections. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications associated with the air leak.
4. What is a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST elevation
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to changes in the ECG, such as T wave flattening. This alteration is important to recognize as it indicates potential electrolyte imbalances. ST elevation (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Widened QRS complex (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperkalemia.
5. During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, what is the purpose of this procedure?
- A. To release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area
- B. To remove dead tissue from the burn area
- C. To improve breathing by reducing skin tightness
- D. To prevent infection in the burned area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, the purpose of this procedure is to release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area. This intervention is crucial in severe burns where the formation of eschar (dead tissue) can lead to increased pressure, compromising circulation and potentially causing further tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because escharotomy specifically aims to address pressure and circulation issues in severe burn injuries, rather than removing dead tissue, improving breathing, or preventing infection.
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