ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Yogurt
- B. Apples
- C. Raisins
- D. Cheddar cheese
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.
2. When planning care for a patient with diabetes insipidus, what should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Monitor serum albumin levels
- B. Avoid alcohol
- C. Teach the patient to increase fluids
- D. Increase exercise to reduce stress
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid alcohol.' Alcohol consumption can exacerbate dehydration in patients with diabetes insipidus, so it is essential to advise them to avoid alcohol. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice A) is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Teaching the patient to increase fluids (choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen the condition by further diluting the urine. Increasing exercise to reduce stress (choice D) is not a primary intervention for managing diabetes insipidus.
3. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase protein intake to 1.5 g/kg/day
- C. Restrict sodium intake to 1 g/day
- D. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excess phosphorus can lead to complications such as bone and heart issues in these patients. Increasing protein intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended as it can lead to increased waste production that the kidneys may struggle to eliminate. Restricting sodium intake (Choice C) is important for managing blood pressure, but the recommendation is usually higher than 1 g/day. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not typically advised in patients with kidney disease, as they often need to limit potassium due to impaired kidney function.
4. What is the initial nursing action for a patient with a chest tube found to have an air leak?
- A. Check the tube connections
- B. Replace the chest tube
- C. Remove and reinsert the chest tube
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient with a chest tube is found to have an air leak, the priority action for the nurse is to check the tube connections. This step helps identify the source of the air leak, which can be caused by loose or disconnected tube connections. Once the source of the leak is identified and addressed, further interventions may be necessary. Replacing or removing and reinserting the chest tube should not be the initial response unless there are specific indications for these actions. Documenting the incident is important but comes after addressing the immediate concern of the air leak.
5. When caring for a patient with hypokalemia, what should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness
- B. Check for cardiac dysrhythmias
- C. Monitor for bradycardia
- D. Monitor for seizures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Answer: Muscle weakness is a common sign of hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for muscle weakness as potassium plays a crucial role in muscle function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, bradycardia, and even seizures in severe cases, muscle weakness is a more common and specific sign directly related to potassium levels.
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