Nursing Elites

1. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.

2. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST elevation
• C. Wide QRS complex
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

3. A patient with a new diagnosis of diabetes insipidus is planning care. What should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Avoid alcohol
• B. Increase exercise to reduce stress
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Restrict sodium intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid alcohol. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination leads to fluid loss, so it is essential to avoid alcohol which can exacerbate dehydration. Choice B is incorrect as increasing exercise may not directly impact diabetes insipidus. Choice C is also incorrect because although increasing fluid intake may seem intuitive, it is not the primary concern in managing diabetes insipidus. Choice D is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus; sodium restriction is more relevant in conditions like hypertension or heart failure.

4. What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³?

• A. Increased risk of severe infection
• B. Increased risk of anemia
• C. Increased risk of bleeding
• D. Increased risk of dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.

5. What should be the first medication given for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
• C. Methylprednisolone IV
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it works as a bronchodilator, helping to relieve the symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath quickly. Cromolyn (choice B) is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than for immediate relief. Methylprednisolone IV (choice C) and Aminophylline 500 mg IV (choice D) are not the first-line treatments for wheezing due to an allergic reaction.

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