Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Perfectionism
• B. Flexibility
• C. Generosity
• D. Spontaneity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder commonly exhibit perfectionism, a need for orderliness, and a preoccupation with details. This behavior often interferes with task completion and can impact interpersonal relationships. Choice A is correct because perfectionism is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder typically lack flexibility, may not display generosity, and tend to avoid spontaneity.

2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) tells the nurse, 'I know my behavior is unreasonable, but I can't help it.' What response should the nurse provide?

• A. Your behavior is part of your illness, and it is important to work on changing it.
• B. It is important to understand why you feel the need to perform these behaviors.
• C. Let's figure out a way for you to control these behaviors.
• D. It sounds like you are feeling powerless to change your behavior.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should acknowledge the client's awareness of the irrationality of their behavior and the feeling of powerlessness to change it. By reflecting the client's feelings, the nurse validates them and opens a discussion on strategies to manage the behavior effectively. Empathy and understanding are key in supporting clients with OCD. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses more on changing the behavior rather than acknowledging the client's feelings. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's sense of powerlessness. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't validate the client's feelings of being unable to control the behaviors.

3. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?

• A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
• B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
• C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
• D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder has been prescribed an MAOI. The patient should be educated to avoid which type of food to prevent hypertensive crises?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. Tyramine-rich foods
• D. Low-fat foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tyramine-rich foods. Patients prescribed MAOIs should avoid tyramine-rich foods to prevent hypertensive crises. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAOIs, leading to a sudden and dangerous increase in blood pressure. Examples of tyramine-rich foods include aged cheeses, cured meats, pickled or fermented foods, and certain beverages like beer and wine. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not associated with causing hypertensive crises when taken with MAOIs.

5. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Monitoring for signs of infection
• B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
• C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
• D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

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