which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient experiencing a panic attack

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?

A. Encourage deep, slow breathing.
B. Encourage the patient to talk about their feelings.
C. Leave the patient alone to calm down.
D. Engage the patient in a physical activity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging deep, slow breathing is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack. This technique can help the patient regulate their breathing, reduce hyperventilation, and promote relaxation, which are essential in managing the symptoms of a panic attack. Choice B, encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings, may not be effective during an acute panic attack as the focus should be on calming the patient down. Choice C, leaving the patient alone, can lead to increased feelings of fear and isolation during a panic attack. Choice D, engaging the patient in physical activity, may exacerbate symptoms as it can increase the feeling of being out of control.

2. Which intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia?

A. Screening a group of males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms.
B. Forming a support group for females aged 25 to 35 with substance use issues.
C. Providing coping skills information to a group aged 45 to 55.
D. Educating parents of developmentally delayed 5- to 6-year-olds on early intervention importance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Screening males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms of schizophrenia is a well-chosen intervention as this age group is at a higher risk for developing the condition. Early identification can lead to timely treatment and better outcomes, making this intervention particularly effective in addressing the population at risk for schizophrenia.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?

A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's unhealthy responses and contributing factors.
D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Psychiatrists use the criteria outlined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) to determine diagnoses. The DSM-5 provides standardized criteria for the classification of mental disorders, ensuring accurate and reliable diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D are inaccurate as hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association is not responsible for psychiatric diagnostic criteria. Choice C describes a more general approach to assessment and does not specifically address the standardized criteria used in psychiatric diagnosis.

5. A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is being assessed by a healthcare professional. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect the client to exhibit?

A. Delusions of grandeur
B. Hypervigilance
C. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors
D. Periods of excessive sleeping

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hypervigilance is a common symptom. Hypervigilance refers to a state of increased alertness, awareness, and sensitivity to potential threats or danger. This heightened state of vigilance can manifest as being easily startled, having difficulty relaxing or sleeping, and constantly scanning the environment for signs of danger. It is an adaptive response to the trauma experienced and can significantly impact the individual's daily functioning. The other options are not typically associated with PTSD. Delusions of grandeur are more commonly seen in certain psychiatric disorders like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not PTSD. Periods of excessive sleeping may be seen in conditions like depression, but they are not a hallmark symptom of PTSD.