ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?
- A. Encourage deep, slow breathing.
- B. Encourage the patient to talk about their feelings.
- C. Leave the patient alone to calm down.
- D. Engage the patient in a physical activity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging deep, slow breathing is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack. This technique can help the patient regulate their breathing, reduce hyperventilation, and promote relaxation, which are essential in managing the symptoms of a panic attack. Choice B, encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings, may not be effective during an acute panic attack as the focus should be on calming the patient down. Choice C, leaving the patient alone, can lead to increased feelings of fear and isolation during a panic attack. Choice D, engaging the patient in physical activity, may exacerbate symptoms as it can increase the feeling of being out of control.
2. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.
3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
- B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
- C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
- D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.
4. A client has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?
- A. Perfectionism
- B. Flexibility
- C. Generosity
- D. Spontaneity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder commonly exhibit perfectionism, a need for orderliness, and a preoccupation with details. This behavior often interferes with task completion and can impact interpersonal relationships. Choice A is correct because perfectionism is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder typically lack flexibility, may not display generosity, and tend to avoid spontaneity.
5. A client has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder and expresses worrying about their job, family, and health, feeling a loss of control. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer a prescribed antianxiety medication.
- B. Encourage the client to attend a support group.
- C. Identify triggers of the client's anxiety.
- D. Teach the client deep breathing techniques.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The initial step for the nurse is to teach the client deep breathing techniques to aid in managing anxiety symptoms. Deep breathing exercises can help the client relax, reduce anxiety levels, and regain a sense of control. This intervention is non-invasive, empowering the client to develop a coping strategy for immediate use when feeling overwhelmed by anxiety. Administering medication (Choice A) should not be the first action unless the client is in severe distress. Encouraging attendance at a support group (Choice B) and identifying triggers of anxiety (Choice C) are important but teaching coping strategies like deep breathing comes first to help the client feel more in control of managing their anxiety.
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