ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. Which of the following is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Weight gain
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Drowsiness is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety. Benzodiazepines work by depressing the central nervous system, which can lead to drowsiness as a side effect. This sedative effect is often desired in the treatment of anxiety disorders, but individuals should be cautious when engaging in activities that require alertness, such as driving, while taking these medications. Insomnia, weight gain, and increased appetite are not typically associated with benzodiazepines; instead, drowsiness and sedation are more common side effects.
2. A client is being taught about which foods to include in a low fiber diet. Which statement indicates understanding?
- A. Choosing a fresh pear would be a good snack option
- B. I should make refried beans for supper
- C. Selecting white rice as a side dish is a good choice
- D. Opting for bran cereal would be a good breakfast choice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because white rice is a low-fiber food suitable for a low-fiber diet, making it an appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because fresh pear, refried beans, and bran cereal are high-fiber foods and not suitable for a low-fiber diet.
3. An infant has been diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT) classified according to the pathophysiology of defective utilization. The nurse understands that the reason for the FTT is most likely related to what?
- A. Cystic fibrosis
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Congenital infection
- D. Breastfeeding problems
Correct answer: C
Rationale: FTT classified as defective utilization is often related to conditions like congenital infections, which interfere with the body's ability to effectively use nutrients. Conditions like cystic fibrosis and hyperthyroidism can also contribute to FTT but are categorized differently
4. A client presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath. The client's ECG shows ST-segment elevation. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy.
- D. Initiate CPR.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client presenting with chest pain, shortness of breath, and ST-segment elevation on ECG, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography. This procedure is crucial in diagnosing and treating acute myocardial infarction promptly. Administering aspirin (Choice A) is important but not the priority over emergent coronary angiography. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice C) is supportive but does not address the underlying cause of the ST-segment elevation. Initiating CPR (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario as the client is stable and conscious.
5. Positive feedback mechanisms usually result in
- A. changes returning values away from a set point.
- B. stable conditions around a set point.
- C. unstable conditions.
- D. long-term changes.
Correct answer: unstable conditions.
Rationale: Positive feedback mechanisms usually result in unstable conditions. In a positive feedback loop, the output enhances or amplifies the changes that are occurring, leading to a deviation from the initial set point. Therefore, positive feedback does not bring values back towards the set point (Choice A). Choice B is incorrect because positive feedback does not promote stability around a set point. Choice D is also incorrect as positive feedback mechanisms typically do not lead to long-term changes; instead, they intensify the initial change, causing instability.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99