Nursing Elites

1. In addition to antianxiety agents, which classification of drugs is commonly prescribed to treat anxiety and anxiety disorders?

• A. Antipsychotics
• B. Mood stabilizers
• C. Antidepressants
• D. Cholinesterase inhibitors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Antidepressants, especially selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), are frequently used in the treatment of anxiety disorders. These medications help alleviate symptoms by affecting neurotransmitters in the brain associated with mood regulation and anxiety.

2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to suppress compulsive behaviors.
• B. Set strict limits on the amount of time the client can engage in compulsive behaviors.
• C. Allow the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed.
• D. Gradually limit the amount of time allotted for compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with OCD, it is essential to gradually limit the time allotted for compulsive behaviors. This intervention helps the client develop alternative coping mechanisms. Encouraging suppression or setting strict limits on compulsive behaviors can exacerbate the client's anxiety, making it crucial to approach the care plan with a gradual reduction strategy. Allowing the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed does not promote progress towards managing OCD symptoms and may reinforce maladaptive patterns of behavior.

3. In what significant way should the therapeutic environment differ for a client who has ingested LSD from that of a client who has ingested PCP?

• A. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. For PCP ingestion, place client on one-on-one intensive supervision.
• B. For LSD ingestion, place the client in restraints. For PCP ingestion, place the client on seizure precautions.
• C. For LSD ingestion, provide continual medieval simulation involving as many senses as possible. For PCP ingestion, provide continual high-level stimulation.
• D. For PCP ingestion, place the client on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a client who has ingested PCP, it is crucial to provide one-on-one intensive supervision to ensure their safety and prevent any harm to themselves or others. This level of supervision is necessary due to the unpredictable and potentially dangerous effects of PCP. On the other hand, for a client who has ingested LSD, it is recommended to maintain a calm environment with limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. This approach aims to prevent exacerbating any adverse effects of LSD, such as anxiety or paranoia, by reducing external stimuli. Therefore, the correct approach is to provide one-on-one intensive supervision for PCP ingestion and limit interaction and verbal stimulation for LSD ingestion.

4. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

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