ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. In addition to antianxiety agents, which classification of drugs is commonly prescribed to treat anxiety and anxiety disorders?
- A. Antipsychotics
- B. Mood stabilizers
- C. Antidepressants
- D. Cholinesterase inhibitors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Antidepressants, especially selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), are frequently used in the treatment of anxiety disorders. These medications help alleviate symptoms by affecting neurotransmitters in the brain associated with mood regulation and anxiety.
2. Which characteristic in an adolescent female is sometimes associated with the prodromal phase of schizophrenia?
- A. Constantly afraid another student will steal her belongings.
- B. An unusual interest in numbers and specific topics.
- C. Demonstrates no interest in athletics or organized sports.
- D. Appears more comfortable among males.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the prodromal phase of schizophrenia, individuals may exhibit subtle changes in behavior or interests. An unusual interest in numbers and specific topics may be a sign of cognitive disturbances that can precede the onset of schizophrenia. While the other choices may also be observed in adolescents, an unusual interest in numbers and specific topics is more specifically linked to potential prodromal symptoms of schizophrenia.
3. A patient with major depressive disorder has been prescribed an MAOI. The patient should be educated to avoid which type of food to prevent hypertensive crises?
- A. High-protein foods
- B. High-fiber foods
- C. Tyramine-rich foods
- D. Low-fat foods
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tyramine-rich foods. Patients prescribed MAOIs should avoid tyramine-rich foods to prevent hypertensive crises. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAOIs, leading to a sudden and dangerous increase in blood pressure. Examples of tyramine-rich foods include aged cheeses, cured meats, pickled or fermented foods, and certain beverages like beer and wine. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not associated with causing hypertensive crises when taken with MAOIs.
4. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?
- A. Pupil dilation
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Decreased salivation
- D. Decreased peristalsis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.
5. A patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly associated with sexual dysfunction as a side effect. This adverse effect includes decreased libido, delayed orgasm, and erectile dysfunction. Educating patients about this potential side effect is crucial to manage expectations and consider appropriate interventions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as SSRIs are not typically associated with hypertension, diarrhea, or weight gain as common side effects.
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