ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has been diagnosed with illness anxiety disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?
- A. Preoccupation with having a serious illness
- B. Fear of social situations
- C. Dramatic expressions of emotion
- D. Preoccupation with a perceived physical defect
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preoccupation with having a serious illness. Illness anxiety disorder, formerly known as hypochondriasis, is characterized by a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness, despite medical reassurance. This preoccupation leads individuals to misinterpret normal bodily sensations as signs of a severe illness, causing distress and impairment in daily functioning. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fear of social situations, dramatic expressions of emotion, and preoccupation with a perceived physical defect are not typical behaviors associated with illness anxiety disorder.
2. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of sublimation?
- A. A woman channels her energy into a new hobby after a breakup.
- B. A man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine.
- C. A student focuses on studying to avoid thinking about a recent argument.
- D. An athlete channels competitive impulses into a successful sports career.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities. In this scenario, the man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine, which is a positive and constructive way of managing his emotions. Choices A, C, and D do not fully align with sublimation as they do not involve redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable outlets, unlike the man's action in choice B.
3. Which of the following therapies is considered the most effective for treating phobias?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Medication management
- D. Group therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is widely recognized as the most effective treatment for phobias. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with their phobias, leading to long-lasting improvement and symptom reduction. Unlike psychoanalysis, which focuses on exploring unconscious conflicts, CBT provides practical strategies to address phobias directly. Medication management may be used in conjunction with therapy but is not typically considered a standalone treatment for phobias. Group therapy can be beneficial for some individuals, but CBT is specifically tailored to target and alleviate phobia symptoms effectively.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Social inhibition
- B. Fear of criticism
- C. Desire for close relationships
- D. Fear of abandonment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with avoidant personality disorder commonly display social inhibition and a fear of criticism or rejection. While they may have a desire for close relationships, they tend to avoid them due to their fear of disapproval and negative evaluation by others. Fear of criticism (Choice B) is also a characteristic behavior seen in individuals with avoidant personality disorder. However, the primary behavior associated with this disorder is social inhibition (Choice A), where individuals tend to be reserved and avoid social interactions. Desiring close relationships (Choice C) may be present, but the fear of rejection typically prevents individuals from pursuing these relationships. Fear of abandonment (Choice D) is more commonly associated with borderline personality disorder rather than avoidant personality disorder.
5. A client has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
- B. Avoid driving until you know how the medication affects you.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam (Ativan) can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so the client should avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. This instruction is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and preventing any potential accidents or harm. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it contradicts the usual recommendation of taking lorazepam with or without food. Choice D is incorrect and dangerous advice as doubling the dose of lorazepam can lead to overdose and serious complications.
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